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IBPS Model Paper
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Directions (Q. No. 71 - 75): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: Eight people- E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a different profession - Charted Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, Engineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. The Scientist is an immediate neighbour of K. There are only three people between the Scientist and E only one person sits between the Engineer and E. The Columnist is to the immediate right of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist. G and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is to the immediate left of F. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbor of the Engineer. G is second to the right of the Charted Accountant. 71. Who is sitting second to the right of E? 1) The Lawyer 2) G 3) The Engineer 4) F 5) K 72. Who amongst the following is the Professor? 1) F 2) L 3) M 4) K 5) J 73. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? 1) Charted Accountant - H 2) M - Doctor 3) J - Engineer 4) Financial Analyst - L 5) Lawyer - K 74. What is the position of L with respect to the Scientist? 1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right 3) Second to the left 4) Third to the right 5) Immediate right 75. Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangement? 1) The Lawyer is second to the left of the doctor 2) E is an immediate neighbour of the Financial Analyst 3) H sits exactly between F and the Financial Analyst 4) Only four people sit between the Columnist and F 5) All of the given statements are true 76. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 77. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest? 1) P 2) T 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 78. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row? 1) Eleventh 2) Tenth 3) Twelfth 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 79. If CGKQW is one sequence following a logic, and another five letter sequence following similar type of logic is BFJPV, then one more variation of this type can be 1) CFKNT 2) DHLRX 3) VPJFB 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 80. A disease would always necessarily have 1) Medicine 2) Bacteria 3) Cause 4) Cure 5) Fever (With special reference to Banking Industry) 81. The 12th ASEAN-India Summit was held in? 1) New Delhi 2) Singapore 3) Bangkok 4) Manila 5) Nay Pyi Taw 82. Who won the Polly Umrigar Award for being India's best international cricketer of the 2013-14 season? 1) Parvez Rasool 2) Bhuvneshwar Kumar 3) Virat Kohli 4) Suresh Raina 5) Ishant Sharma 83. The International Children's Peace Prize 2014, an initiative of Kids Rights, has been won by? 1) Alexey 2) Andrew 3) Neha Gupta 4) Malala Yousafzai 5) None of these 84. Who won the 2014 Formula One World Championship? 1) Sebastian Vettel 2) Nico Rosberg 3) Fernando Alonso 4) Lewis Hamilton 5) Jenson Button 85. Who is the author of the book 'Capital in the Twenty-First Century'? 1) Paul Krugman 2) Amartya Sen 3) Elinor Ostrom 4) Joseph Stiglitz 5) Thomas Piketty 86. Identify the mismatched pair? 1) NBFCs - Non-Banking Financial Companies 2) ECBs - External Commercial Borrowings 3) FCCBs - Foreign Currency Concession Bonds 4) DIPP -Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion 5) FDI - Foreign Direct Investment 87. 'Sarvada Vijay' is a major field exercise conducted by the Army in May 2014 in? 1) Gujarat 2) Rajasthan 3) Punjab 4) Jammu & Kashmir 5) Haryana 88. Which Indian-American student won the 2014 National Geographic Bee contest? 1) Ansun Sujoe 2) Sriram Hathwar 3) Akhil Rekulapelli 4) Arvind Mahankali 5) Snigdha Nandipati 89. Which country has announced that it will make match-fixing a specific crime for the first time to ensure sport remains corruption-free? 1) India 2) Pakistan 3) Australia 4) New Zealand 5) England 90. Kamal Chawla is associated with? 1) Golf 2) Snooker 3) Chess 4) Kabaddi 5) Archery 91. The first cooperative bank in India to have its own RuPay ATM-cum-debit card is in? 1) Punjab 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Rajasthan 5) Haryana 92. Who is the Chairman of a Committee that suggested customers should be given a free copy of their Credit Information Reports (CIRs)? 1) Anand Sinha 2) Aditya Puri 3) Arvind Mayaram 4) Damodaran 5) R.S. Gujral 93. At present the Reserve Bank of India has provision for how many deputy governors? 1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) Six 94. Which company topped the Forbes' annual list of the world's 2000 largest and most powerful public companies? 1) ICBC 2) China Construction Bank 3) Agricultural Bank of China 4) Reliance Industries 5) State Bank of India 95. The Dhamra Port is a major newly developed port in? 1) Gujarat 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Maharashtra 4) Karnataka 5) Odisha 96. Which of the following companies has recently taken over Network 18 group? 1) STAR group 2) Reliance Industries Limited 3) Times of India group 4) Sahara group 5) None of these 97. Parbati hydro electricity project is located in? 1) Punjab 2) Haryana 3) Assam 4) Jammu & Kashmir 5) Himachal Pradesh 98. During the six years between 2004 and 2011, which State topped in creation of new jobs in the manufacturing sector? 1) West Bengal 2) Gujarat 3) Maharashtra 4) Odisha 5) Tamil Nadu 99. Bangladesh signed a deal with which of the following countries to set up a 1320-megawatt coal-based power plant in Moheshkhali? 1) India 2) USA 3) China 4) Russia 5) South Korea 100. Jacob Zuma was elected President of which of the following countries for a second term? 1) Ghana 2) Sudan 3) Ivory Coast 4) Uganda 5) South Africa 101. Ashraf Ghani is the? 1) President of Pakistan 2) Prime Minister of Pakistan 3) President of Afghanistan 4) Prime Minister of Afghanistan 5) President of Iran 102. CRR and SLR are the terms related to? 1) Capital market 2) Commodities market 3) Insurance 4) Mutual Funds 5) None of these 103. What does the letter 'L' stands for in the term LAF? 1) Liquid 2) Least 3) Liability 4) Liquidity 5) Lowest 104. Union Budget is normally presented in the month of? 1) January 2) February 3) March 4) April 5) May 105. Who was recently appointed the Chief Justice of India? 1) Justice Rohinton Nariman 2) Justice N.V. Ramana 3) Justice H.L. Dattu 4) Justice P. Sathasivam 5) None of these 106. Which of the following Awards is given for excellence in literature? 1) Arjuna Award 2) Dronacharya Award 3) Dada Saheb Phalke award 4) Phalke Ratna Award 5) None of these 107. Which of the following provides insurance cover for bank deposits in India? 1) RBI 2) LIC 3) SBI 4) DICGC 5) Finance Ministry 108. Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council? 1) India 2) Brazil 3) China 4) Germany 5) Japan 109. Which of the following is the name of a currency of a country? 1) Ankara 2) Tunis 3) Lusaka 4) Kwacha 5) Peru 110. Which of the following is not the name of a country? 1) Tunisia 2) Togo 3) Tonga 4) Senegal 5) Bratislava 111. Fourteen private banks were nationalized in the year? 1) 1947 2) 1949 3) 1955 4) 1969 5) 1980 112. Insurance sector in India is regulated by? 1) LIC 2) SEBI 3) GIC 4) RBI 5) IRDA 113. Which of the following is not a private bank? 1) Karnataka Bank 2) Axis Bank 3) Dena Bank 4) Kotak Mahindra Bank 5) HDFC Bank 114. BIFR stands for? 1) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction 2) Bureau for Industrial and Financial Rehabilitation 3) Board for Institutional Finance and Rehabilitation 4) Board for Investigation and Formal Reconstruction 5) None of these 115. Subhash Chandra Garg has been recently appointed Executive Director in? 1) IMF 2) World Bank 3) ADB 4) WTO 5) None of these 116. BPLR stands for? 1) Base Primary Lending Rate 2) Benchmark Prime Lending rate 3) Basic Priority Lending Rate 4) Below Poverty Line Rate 5) None of these 117. Recep Tayyip Erdogan was sworn in as the President of? 1) Iran 2) Iraq 3) Turkey 4) Vietnam 5) Cyprus 118. Who among the following is the new Governor of Rajasthan? 1) Ch. Vidyasagar Rao 2) Vajubhai Vala 3) Kalyan Singh 4) Mridula Sinha 5) None of these 119. Who is the winner of the 2014 Man Booker Prize? 1) Joshua Ferris 2) Karen Joy Fowler 3) Neel Mukherjee 4) Richard Flanagan 5) None of these 120. Jean Tirole won the 2014 Nobel Prize for Economics. He belongs to? 1) Sweden 2) Norway 3) USA 4) UK 5) France Directions (Q. No. 121 – 130): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 121. 2.8 + 28.8 + 2.88+0.2+ 0.28 = ? 1) 44.96 2) 33.96 3) 43.96 4) 34.96 5) None of these 122. 63 × 9 × 14 ÷ ? = 98 1) 83 2) 86 3) 88 4) 91 5) None of these 123. 11.7 × 4.1 – 5.97 = ? 1) 48 2) 42 3) 46 4) 39 5) None of these 124. 1) 758 2) 763 3) 741 4) 751 5) None of these 125. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) None of these 126. 4.5 + 23.50 + 14.58 – 17.68 × 0.5 = ? 1) 33.74 2) 21.29 3) 35.06 4) 24.48 5) None of these 127. (3675 ÷ 75) × (7480 ÷ 80) = ? 1) 4394.5 2) 4301 3) 4581.5 4) 4114 5) None of these 128. 1) 15 2) 18.5 3) 20 4) 16.5 5) None of these 129. 87146 – 66425 – 15693 = ? 1) 5038 2) 5028 3) 5040 4) 5015 5) None of these 130. (786 × 74) ÷ ? = 1211.75 1) 42 2) 36 3) 56 4) 54 5) None of these Directions (Q. No. 131 – 135): What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 131. 456.675 + 35.7683 × 67.909 – 58.876 = ? 1) 33382 2) 3587 3) 1540 4) 2756 5) 2830 132. (52.36)2 = ? 1) 129600 2) 138850 3) 143550 4) 165790 5) 177370 133. 1) 260 2) 277 3) 284 4) 300 5) 316 134. (564% of 212) ÷ 394 = ? 1) 3 2) 9 3) 18 4) 21 5) 24 135. (7684 + 5454 + 9041) ÷ (601 + 296 + 557) = ? 1) 24 2) 15 3) 33 4) 9 5) 41 Directions (Q. No. 136 – 140): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 136. 7, 17, 54, ?, 1098, 6591 1) 204 2) 212 3) 223 4) 219 5) None of these 137. 55, 109, ?, 433, 865, 1729 1) 279 2) 372 3) 217 4) 318 5) None of these 138. 19, 38, ?, 228, 684, 1368 1) 106 2) 114 3) 121 4) 98 5) None of these 139. 87, 89, 95, 107, ?, 157 1) 127 2) 122 3) 139 4) 140 5) None of these 140. 474, 459, 429, 369, 249, ? 1) 9 2) 0 3) 4 4) 11 5) None of these 141. Difference between the digits of a two digit number is 5 and the digit in the unit's place is six times the digit in the ten's place. What is the number? 1) 27 2) 72 3) 16 4) 61 5) None of these 142. 56% of a number is less than its 72% by 56. What is 70% of that number? 1) 300 2) 235 3) 240 4) 350 5) None of these 143. Sum of five consecutive even numbers is 380. What is the second number in a ascending order? 1) 76 2) 78 3) 74 4) 72 5) None of these 144. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 7 days. In how many days will 28 men complete the same work? 1) 6 days 2) 8 days 3) 3 days 4) 4 days 5) None of these 145. Population of two villages C and Y are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively. If the population of village Y increase by 25000 and the population of village X remains unchanged the respe- ctive ratio of their population becomes 25:36. What is the population of village X? 1) 625000 2) 675000 3) 875000 4) 900000 5) None of these 146. Three girls start jogging from the same point around a circular track and each one complete one round in 24 sec, 36 sec and 48 sec respectively. After how much time will they meet at one point? 1) 2 min 20 sec 2) 2 min 24 sec 3) 4 min 12 sec 4) 3 min 36 sec 5) None of these 147. A 240 m long train running at the speed of 60 km/hr will take how much time to cross another 270 m long train running in opposite direction at the speed of 48 km/hr? 1) 17 sec 2) 3 sec 3) 12 sec 4) 8 sec 5) None of these 148. Madhu started a boutique investing an amount of Rs. 50,000. Six months later Sunil joined his with an amount of Rs. 80,000. At the end of one year they earned a profit of Rs. 18,000. What is Madhu's share in the profit? 1) Rs. 9,000 2) Rs. 8,000 3) Rs. 12,000 4) Rs. 10,000 5) None of these 149. A alone can make 100 baskets in 6 days and B alone can make 100 baskets in 12 days. In how many days can A and B together make 100 baskets? 1) 3 days 2) 5 days 3) days 4) days 5) None of these 150. Samir's age is one-fourth of his father's age and two-third of his sisters Reema's age. What is the ratio of the ages of Samir, Reema and their father respectively? 1) 3:2:8 2) 3:4:8 3) 2:3:8 4) 4:3:8 5) None of these 151. Ramu invests 25% of his mont- hly salary in insurance policies. He spends 15% of his monthly salary in shopping and 35% of his salary on household expen- ses. He saves the remaining amount of Rs. 9050. What is Ramu's annual income? 1) Rs. 84,500 2) Rs. 5,30,000 3) Rs. 3,25,200 4) Rs. 4,34,400 5) None of these 152. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'HAPPY' be arranged? 1) 120 2) 140 3) 60 4) 70 5) None of these 153. What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 8840 at the rate of 5% per annum at the end of 3 years? 1) Rs. 1393.405 2) Rs. 1326 3) Rs. 1384.50 4) Rs. 1340 5) None of these 154. What is the average of the following set of numbers? 22, 45, 86, 55, 42 1) 25 2) 45 3) 50 4) 56 5) None of these 155. Aruna purchased an article and sold it for Rs.2817.50 and earned 15% profit on the cost price. What was the cost price of the article? 1) Rs. 2500 2) Rs. 2450 3) Rs. 2550 4) Rs. 3315 5) None of these 156. 45% of a number is less than its 64% by 38. What is 20% of that number? 1) 20 2) 40 3) 10 4) 60 5) None of these -
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147. 8 men and 4 women together can complete a piece of work in 6 days. The work done by a man in one day is double the work done by a woman in one day. If 8 men and 4 women started working and after 2 days 4 men left and 4 new women joined, in how many more days will the work be completed? 1) 5 days 2) 8 days 3) 6 days 4) 4 days 5) 9 days 148. What will be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs 10,000 at 20% p.a in two years if the interest is compounded half - yearly? 1) Rs. 4,400 2) Rs. 4,600 3) Rs. 4,461 4) Rs. 4,680 5) None of these 149. The income of A is 150% of the income of B and the income of C is 120% of the income of A. If the total income of A, B and C together is Rs.86,000. What is C's income? 1) Rs. 30,000 2) Rs. 32,000 3) Rs. 20,000 4) Rs. 36,000 5) None of these 150. Twice the square of a number is six times the other number. What is the ratio of the first number to the second? 1) 1 : 4 2) 2 : 5 3) 1 : 3 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Directions (Q.No.151 - 155): Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it. 151. What was the percentage increase in export from 1995 to 1996? 1) 25 2) 150 3) 125 4) 140 5) None of these 152. In which of the following years was the difference in export and import the maximum? 1) 1992 2) 1993 3) 1994 4) 1996 5) All of these 153. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 5) None of these 154. In which of the following years was the percentage decrease in imports the highest from the preceding year? 1) 1992 2) 1994 3) 1995 4) 1993 5) None of these 155. In which of the following pairs of years were the imports the same? 1) 1990, 1995 2) 1991, 1995 3) 1993, 1994 4) 1992, 1993 5) None of these. Directions (Q.No. 156 - 160): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. Percentage of employees in various departments of an organization and the male - female ratio Male : Female Ratio Department Male : Female Administration 7 : 5 Accounts 2 : 3 HR 5 : 3 Marketing 7 : 8 IT 3 : 4 Operations 5 : 4 Logistics 6 : 5 Printing 2 : 1 156. What is the ratio of male employees in Administration to those in printing department? 1) 7 : 4 2) 4 : 7 3) 3 : 4 4) 7 : 3 5) None of these 157. What is the difference between the total number of employees in IT and that in Operations department? 1) 75 2) 150 3) 100 4) 50 5) None of these 158. What is the ratio of the total number of males in HR and Marketing to the total number of females in these two departments? 1) 13 : 15 2) 15 : 13 3) 13 : 17 4) 17 : 14 5) None of these 159. How many female employees are there in the HR department? 1) 250 2) 120 3) 125 4) 150 5) None of these 160. What is the difference between the number of male and female employees in Logistics department? 1) 50 2) 25 3) 75 4) 100 5) None of these General Awareness With special reference to Banking Industry (40 Marks) 161. From the given options 1 to 5, please find out the one which is not an obj-ective of a central bank of a country? 1) The central bank of a country aims at profit 2) The central bank is given powers to control and regulate the working of the commercial banks 3) Central bank generally is a organ of the government and run by government officials 4) Central bank generally controls the credit 5) Central bank is generally banker of the government 162. Channel financing means financing of: 1) Laying of agricultural canals 2) Dealers of identified large corporate financed by the bank 3) NBFCs 4) SHGs/NGOs 5) All the above 163. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) is renamed after 1) Jawaharlal Nehru 2) Mahatma Gandhi 3) Indira Gandhi 4) Rajeev Gandhi 5) Abdul Kalam 164. Syndication of advances is the reco-mmendations of: 1) Kanan Committee 2) Shetty Committee 3) Kalyan Sundram Committee 4) Ghosh Committee 5) Narasimhan Committee 165. As per the RBI's Clean Note Policy, writing on a Currency Note is ___ 1) an Offence 2) a Crime 3) a Punishable Offence 4) the notes become non-legal tender 5) None of these 166. SBI's new Training Initiative "Strategic Training Unit" is located at 1) New Delhi 2) Bangalore 3) Hyderabad 4) Mumbai 5) Bangalore 167. Holidays are declared to the banks under 1) RBI Act 2) Banking Regulation Act 3) Negotiable Instrument Act 4) Indian Contracts Act 5) All the above 168. The first development financial ins-titution in India that has got merged with a bank is 1) IDBI 2) ICICI 3) IDFC 4) UTI 5) SBI 169. Indian Banks Association (IBA) has a common net working system for sharing the ATM facilities in Mumbai, which is known as 1) ATM Network 2) Shared Payment Network System 3) Cash Network 4) All the above 5) None of these 170. For which of the following currencies is the Indian rupee quoted against 100 units of the foreign currency? 1) Deutsche Mark 2) Pound 3) Japanese Yen 4) US Dollars 5) None of these 171. In loan cases where repayment of the major or large part of a loan is stipulated in a single payment follo-wing payment of smaller instalment is referred as: 1) Equated payment schedule 2) Balloon payment schedule 3) Bullet payment schedule. 4) 2 & 3 5) None of the above 172. Borrowings in which there is no amortization or where repayment of the principle occurs only at maturity is called: 1) Equated payment schedule 2) Bullet payment schedule 3) Balloon payment schedule 4) Flip payment schedule 5) Unique Payment Schedule 173. Dividend yield refers to: 1) The ratio of dividend receive in the previous year to the anticipated market price of a share 2) The ratio of anticipated dividend to the current market price of a share 3) The ratio of current dividend to the current market price of a share 4) The total dividend that is declared every year by an organisation 5) None of the above 174. Banking services delivered to a customer by means of a computer control system that does not directly involve usual banks branch is called: 1) Universal Banking 2) Virtual Banking 3) Narrow Banking 4) Brick and Mortar Banking 5) None of the above 175. Green Shoe option refers to: 1) Option to the issuer of any financial instrument to sell a certain portion of over subscription in the public issue. 2) Option to the issuer of any financial Instrument to retain a certain portion of over subscription in the public issue. 3) Option to the under writer of any financial instrument to retain a certain portion of over subscription in the public issue. 4) All of the above 5) None of these 176. Electronic Clearing Service in banks can be availed only by: 1) Individuals 2) Corporate 3) Senior Citizens 4) All of these 5) None of these Key 101) 2 102) 4 103) 5 104) 3 105) 5 106) 3 107) 4 108) 3 109) 2 110) 3 111) 5 112) 1 113) 2 114) 5 115) 2 116) 1 117) 3 118) 4 119) 2 120) 2 121) 1 122) 4 123) 1 124) 4 125) 3 126) 5 127) 3 128) 2 129) 2 130) 5 131) 3 132) 1 133) 5 134) 3 135) 2 136) 5 137) 5 138) 3 139) 4 140) 3 141) 5 142) 3 143) 3 144) 5 145) 1 146) 2 147) 1 148) 3 149) 4 150) 4 151) 3 152) 5 153) 3 154) 1 155) 5 156) 1 157) 3 158) 4 159) 4 160) 2 161) 1 162) 2 163) 2 164) 4 165) 3 166) 3 167) 3 168) 2 169) 2 170) 3 171) 2 172) 2 173) 3 174) 2 175) 2 176) 4 -
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Directions (Q.No. 38 & 39): In each question below is given a statement followed by two or three courses of action I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and decide which of the given courses of action(s) logically follows for pursuing. 38. Statement: It is reported that huge medical waste is thrown on the roadside in a residential colony in a city. Course of Action: I. Muncipal corporation should be instructed to clean the roads of the colony daily. II. Residents of the colony should shift to another colony by vacating their present houses. 1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Either I or II follows 4) Neither I nor II follows 5) Both I and II follow 39. Statement: Every year during monsoon quite a few people get drowned and die while swimming in the sea on various beaches in the city. Course of Action: I. The civic administration should deploy at least two life guards on each of the beaches during monsoon. II. The civic administration should make arrangements to caution people from swimming in the sea during monsoon. 1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Either I or II follows 4) Neither I nor II follows 5) Both I and II follow Directions (Q.No. 40-42): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. 40. Statement: The Govt. has decided to conduct training camps at village level across the country for those who wanted to learn how to transfer money or check the balance in their bank account through their mobile phone. Assumptions: I. People may not be interested to attend the Government's training camp. II. Many people at the village level in the country are having mobile phones. III. The intention behind the Government's decision is to eradicate financial untouchability. 1) Only I and II are implicit 2) Only II and III are implicit 3) Only II is implicit 4) Only I and III are implicit 5) None of these 41. Statement: Principal of a public school has instructed all the teachers to use power point presentations for carrying out their daily teaching activities. Assumptions: I. Teachers may be capable of using power point presentations to carry out their teaching activities. II. Principal is interested in improving the standards of teaching. III. Teachers reject the principal's direction and continue their teaching activities as before. 1) Only I is implicit 2) Only II is implicit 3) Only I and II are implicit 4) Only III is implicit 5) None of these 42. One of the largest pharmaceutical companies in the country has decided to reduce its workforce by 30 per cent so that it can work efficiently. I. The company can perform all its activities even after the reduction in the work force. II. The company's progress will come to a standstill as the employees revolt against the company's decision. 1) Only I is implicit 2) Only II is implicit 3) Only I and II are implicit 4) Only III is implicit 5) None of these Directions (Q.No.43-50): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions: Following are the criteria for appointing a Human Resource Manager for a company. The candidate must A) Not be more than 35 years as on 1.6.2014 B) Be a post graduate in HRM (Human Resources Management) C) Have work experience as Human Resource manager of at least five years D) Have good command over English In the case of a candidate - I. Who satisfies all the other criteria except (A) above but has work experience as HR manager for at least ten years, his/her case may be referred to Director (Human Resource) for consideration. II. Who satisfies all the other criteria except (C ) above but has obtained Ph.D. degree in Human Resource Management his/her case may be referred to Managing Director for consideration. You are given the following cases on 1.6.2014. Depending upon the information provided in each case in each of the question given below and based on the criteria mentioned above, recommend your decision. You are not to assume anything. Mark your answer as per the following: Mark answer- 1) If the candidate is to be selected 2) If the candidate is not to be selected 3) If the case is to be referred to Director -Human Resource 4) If the case is to be referred to Managing Director 5) If complete information is not provided 43. Kamini is a post graduate in HR and was born on 15th August, 1981. She has been in a XYZ company for the last ten years as Human Resource manager. 44. Amala holds Ph.D in Human Resource Management. She has been working in a company as Human Resource manager for the last two years. She has good command over English and was born on 2nd November 1978. 45. Vishal is a post graduate in HRM. He was 32 year old as on 1st December, 2013. He has good command over English and has been working in a company as HR manager for the last 12 years. 46. Prakash is post graduate in HRM and has been working in a company as Human Resource manager for the last 15 years. He has good command over English and his date of birth is 13th April, 1978 47. Charan is a post graduate in HRM and has been working in a company as HR manager for the last 7 years. He has good command over English and his date of birth is 20th march, 1981. 48. Prameela was born on 25th Janu-ary1982. She has been working in a company as HR manager for the last three years. She has good command over English. She has done Ph.D. in HRM. 49. Neha has done post graduation in HRM. She has good command over English and has been working in a company as HR manager for the last five years. She was born on 17th may, 1983. 50. Akbaruddin is post graduate in HRM. He has been working as HR manager for the last seven years. He has good command over English. Computer Knowledge (20 Marks) 51. Identify the IP address from the following: 1) 300.215.317.3 2) 302.215@417.5 3) 202.50.20.148 4) 202-50-20-148 5) 101.50. 2 0.148 52. Memories which can be read only are called ____ memories. 1) RAM 2) Secondary Memory 3) EERAM 4) Dynamic Memories 5) ROM 53. What is the another name of endless loop? 1) Data traffic pattern 2) Data loop 3) Infinite loop 4) Feedback loop 5) Slot 54. A single packet on a data link is known as ___ 1) Path 2) Frame 3) Block 4) Group 5) None of the above 55. The microcomputer, Intel MCS-80 is based on the widely used Intel ___ 1) 8080 microprocessor 2) 8085 microprocessor 3) 8086 microprocessor 4) 8082 microprocessor 5) None of the above 56. Any storage device added to a computer beyond the immediately usable main storage is known as: 1) Floppy disk 2) Hard disk 3) Backing store 4) Punched card 5) None of the above 57. Which output device is used for translating information from a computer into pictorial form on paper? 1) Mouse 2) Plotter 3) Touch panel 4) Card punch 5) None of the above 58. Which type of system puts the user into direct conversation with the computer through a keyboard? 1) Real time processing 2) Interactive computer 3) Batch processing 4) Time sharing 5) None of the above 59. The list of coded instructions is called: 1) Computer program 2) Algorithm 3) Flowchart 4) Utility programs 5) None of the above 60. A section of code to which control is transferred when a processor is interrupted is known as ___ 1) M 2) SVC 3) IP 4) MDR 5) None of the above 61. ____ gives a computer its unique address across the network. 1) System Address 2) SYSID 3) Process ID 4) IP Address 5) CPU Address 62. A database management system based on the concept of ownership: 1) Network topology 2) Network layer 3) Network database system 4) Network license system 5) None of the above 63. Which functional component of a computer is responsible for the computing? 1) Input 2) Output 3) CPU 4) Memory 5) Storage 64. Which of the following computer terms is used to describe the number of bits that a CPU accessed at one time? 1) Nibble 2) Word 3) Byte 4) Character 5) Bit 65. What characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage? 1) Too slow 2) Unreliable 3) It is volatile 4) Too bulky 5) All the above 66. COBOL is used in____ applications. 1) commercial 2) scientific 3) space 4) mathematical 5) Algorithms 67. What altering of data so that it is NOT usable unless the changes are done is called? 1) Biometrics 2) Compression 3) Encryption 4) Ergonomics 5) None of these 68. What is the shortcut for 'find and replace' dialogue box? 1) Ctrl + F 2) Ctrl + R 3) Ctrl + H 4) Ctrl + M 5) Ctrl + D 69. Search menu is available at which of the following buttons? 1) End 2) Start 3) Turn off 4) Restart 5) Reboot 70. Which of the following is a section of the CPU that is responsible for performing mathematical operations? 1) Memory 2) Register Unit 3) Control Unit 4) ALU 5) CPU Key: 38) 4 39) 5 40) 2 41) 3 42) 1 43) 5 44) 2 45) 1 46) 3 47) 1 48) 4 49) 1 50) 5 51) 3 52) 5 53) 3 54) 2 55) 1 56) 3 57) 2 58) 2 59) 1 60) 1 61) 4 62) 3 63) 3 64) 2 65) 3 66) 1 67) 3 68) 1 69) 2 70) 4 -
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Directions (Q.141-145): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. A. Two reforms are possible here. The first is to encourage more entrants, since competition will reduce the incentive to store for long periods. B. However, if storage facilities are controlled by a small group of middlemen who procure in large volumes to manipulate price, it amounts to market failure. C. Hence, creation of storage facilities is encouraged in policy circles. D. Indian agriculture is vulnerable to sharp price cycles. E. The second is to bring in some degree of transparency and market intelligence. 141. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) B 142. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) E 143. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) E 3) C 4) B 5) D 144. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? 1) D 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) E 145. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) E Directions (Q. 146 to 150): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 146. They examined both the samples very carefully but failed to detect any difference in them. 1) some difference in 2) some difference between 3) any difference between 4) any difference among 5) No correction required 147. They have a scheme of rewarding the best of the performers every year 1) a best performer 2) the best among the performer 3) a best among performer 4) the best of the performer 5) No correction required 148. Making friends is more rewarding than to make enemies. 1) to be unsociable 2) to be sociable 3) being unsociable 4) making enemies 5) No correction required 149. For many centuries in Indian History there was no city so famous like the city of Ujjain. 1) as 2) such as 3) likewise 4) so like 5) No correction required 150. It was until many years later that Gandhi became a rebel against authority. 1) It was not until many years 2) It was till many years 3) It was not many years 4) Until it was many years 5) No correction required Directions (Q.151-160): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. As Gandhi said, the poor of the world cannot ____ (151) helped by mass production, only by production by the masses. The system of mass production, based on sophisticated, ___ (152) capital-intensive, high energy-input dependent and human labour-saving technology, pre-supposes that you are already rich, for a -___ (153) deal of capital investment is needed to ____ (154) one single workplace. The system of production by the masses mobilizes the priceless resources which are ____ (155) by all human beings, their clever brains and skilful hands, and supports them with first-class tools. The technology of mass production is inherently violent, ___ (156) damaging, self-defeating in terms of non-renewable resources and stultifying for the human person. The technology of production by the masses, making use of the best of modern knowledge and experience, is ___ (157) to decentralization, compatible with the laws of ecology, gentle in its use of scarce resources, and designed to serve the human person ____ (158) of making him the servant of human machines. I have named it intermediate technology to signify that it is vastly superior to the primitive technology of ____ (159) ages but at the same time much simpler, cheaper and freer than the super-technology of the rich. One can also call it self-help technology, or democratic or people's technology - a technology to which ____ (160) can gain admittance and which is not reserved to those already rich and powerful. 151. 1) be 2) is 3) was 4) were 5) are 152. 1) high 2) highly 3) higher 4) highest 5) height 153. 1) much 2) more 3) very 4) great 5) many 154. 1) establish 2) put 3) contain 4) got 5) found 155. 1) pose 2) possess 3) possible 4) possibility 5) possessed 156. 1) economy 2) ecologically 3) environment 4) ecosystem 5) engage 157. 1) conducive 2) confidence 3) compact 4) compose 5) corporate 158. 1) in order 2) invalid 3) already 4) instead 5) interest 159. 1) before 2) after 3) bygone 4) previous 5) subsequent 160. 1) each one 2) all in one 3) everybody 4) more 5) many Numerical Ability Directions (Q.161-170): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 161. 89.4 × 412.8 × 648.1 = 16? 1) 41.8 2) 16.2 3) 18.4 4) 25.6 5) None of these 162. 1) 2 2) 6 3) 10 4) 3 5) None of these 163. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) None of these 164. 152 + 102 + 62 =?2 1) 130321 2) 361 3) 103041 4) 17 5) None of these 165. 12% of 840 × 0.25% of 148 =? 1) 37.296 2) 101.17 3) 68.432 4) 97.046 5) None of these 166. 1220 × 125 =? 1) 12100 2) 124 3) 1225 4) 1215 5) None of these 167. 34.667 – 15.597 – 8.491 – 0.548 =? 1) 14.403 2) 10.031 3) 18.301 4) 21.043 5) None of these 168. [(140)2 ÷ 70 × 16] ÷ 8 = 14 ×? 1) 38 2) 22 3) 55 4) 40 5) None of these 169. 456 + 24 × 0.75 – 12 =? 1) 462 2) 672 3) 348 4) 624 5) None of these 170. 1) 256 2) 289 3) 155 4) 19 5) None of these Directions(Q. 171-175): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Number of Graduates and Post-Graduates living in various towns Towns Graduates Post-Graduates A 10,200 8,000 B 25,250 18,000 C 15,150 10,500 D 20,200 16,250 E 24,000 20,000 F 16,500 18,450 171. What is the difference between the number of graduates and the number of post-graduates in town C? 1) 4550 2) 4500 3) 4560 4) 4600 5) None of these 172. What is the average number of post-graduates in all the towns together? 1) 16,250 2) 15,500 3) 15,200 4) 16,000 5) None of these 173. What is the ratio of the number of graduates from towns A and B together to the number of post-graduates from towns A and E together? 1) 709:535 2) 709:560 3) 540:709 4) 769:709 5) None of these 174. What is the total number of graduates and post-graduates in towns A, D and F together? 1) 84,500 2) 90,200 3) 88,500 4) 89,600 5) None of these 175. The number of graduates in town F is approximately what percent of the number of post-graduates in the same town? 1) 84 2) 92 3) 95 4) 83 5) 89 Directions (Q. 176 - 180): Study the following line graph and answer the questions based on it. 176. What was the percentage increase in export from 1995 to 1996? 1) 25 2) 150 3) 125 4) 140 5) None of these 177. In which of the following years was the difference in export and import the maximum? 1) 1992 2) 1993 3) 1994 4) 1996 5) All of these 178. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 5) None of these 179. In which of the following years was the percentage decrease in imports the highest from the preceding year? 1) 1992 2) 1994 3) 1995 4) 1993 5) None of these 180. In which of the following pairs of years were the imports the same? 1) 1990, 1995 2) 1991, 1995 3) 1993, 1994 4) 1992, 1993 5) None of these 181. A man walks along the diagonal side of a square field at the rate of 20 kmph for 30 min. Find the area of the square field? 1) 50 sq.kms 2) 25 sq.kms 3) 40 sq.kms 4) 30 sq.kms 5) None of these 182. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 16000 and Rs. 12000 respectively. After 3 months, A withdrew Rs. 5000 while B invested Rs. 5000 more. After 3 more months C joins the business with a capital of Rs. 21000. The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of Rs. 26400 after one year by: 1) Rs. 2400 2) Rs. 3600 3) Rs. 3000 4) Rs. 4800 5) None of these 183. John buys an old scooter for Rs. 4700 and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for Rs. 5800. What is his profit percent? 1) 12% 2) 10% 3) 4) 5) 6% 184. In how many years will Rs. 4600 amount to Rs. 5428 at 3% per annum simple interest? 1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 4 5) None of these 185. The sum of money will become double itself in 10 years at Simple Interest. Find Rate of Interest? 1) 5% 2) 10% 3) 15% 4) 20% 5) None of these Key 141) 2; 142) 2; 143) 2; 144) 1; 145) 4; 146) 3; 147) 5; 148) 4; 149) 1; 150) 1; 151) 1; 152) 2; 153) 4; 154) 1; 155) 5; 156) 2; 157) 1; 158) 4; 159) 3; 160) 3; 161) 4; 162) 5; 163) 2; 164) 5; 165) 1; 166) 3; 167) 2; 168) 4; 169) 1; 170) 5; 171) 1; 172) 3; 173) 2; 174) 4; 175) 5; 176) 3; 177) 5; 178) 3; 179) 1; 180) 5; 181) 1; 182) 2; 183) 4; 184) 3; 185) 2. -
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94. Which of the following is an advantage to using fibre optics data transmission? 1) Resistance to data theft 2) Fast data transmission rate 3) Few transmission errors 4) Low noise level 5) All the above 95. Which one of the following when added can reduce the processing time of a computer? 1) A buffer 2) A co-processor 3) 1024 megabyte 4) A converter 5) 1064 megabyte 96. A program that neither replicates or copies itself, but does damage or co-mpromises the security of the computer. Which 'Computer Virus' it is? 1) Hoax 2) Worm 3) Trojan 4) Joke program 5) Juke program 97. 'DB' computer abbreviation usually means? 1) Driver Boot 2) Double Byte 3) Data Block 4) Database 5) None of these 98. What do we call a network whose elements may be separated by some distance? It usually involves two or more small networks and dedicated high-speed telephone lines. 1) WAN (Wide Area Network) 2) World Wide Web 3) URL (Universal Resource Loca-tor) 4) LAN (Local Area Network) 5) All the above 99. Hardware devices that are not part of the main computer system and are often added later to the system. 1) Execute 2) Highlight 3) Peripheral 4) Clip art 5) Insert 100. '.BAK' extension refers usually to what kind of file? 1) Audio file 2) MS Encarta document 3) Backup file 4) Animation/ movie file 5) Restore file 101. The main computer that stores the files that can be sent to computers that are networked together is ___ 1) Clip art 2) File server 3) Peripheral 4) Mother board 5) IC 102. Which of the following word processors came first? 1) MS Word 2) Lotus Notes 3) WordPerfect 4) WordStar 5) WordPad 103. Which of the following operating systems is produced by IBM? 1) UNIX 2) Windows 3) DOS 4) OS-2 5) OS-3 104. Computers calculate numbers in what mode? 1) Decimal 2) Octal 3) Binary 4) Primary 5) Secondary 105. Which of the following software is used to view web pages? 1) Web Browser 2) Internet Browser 3) Page Browser 4) Crème Browser 5) All the above 106. ____ is the process in which a user sends computer information from his computer to another computer through modem. 1) Downloading 2) Uploading 3) Processing 4) Programming 5) Seeding 107. Which of the following is used to sa-ve the frequently visited web sites? 1) Frequent List 2) Favourites List 3) Explorer List 4) File list 5) Data list 108. Which of the following performs arithmetic and logical operations? 1) CU 2) PU 3) ALU 4) Memory 5) CPU 109. A ____ is a group of independent computers attached to one another through communication media. 1) Internet 2) E-mail 3) Network 4) Software 5) Hard ware 110. Which of the following is a presentation program? 1) MS-Word 2) MS-Excel 3) MS-Power Point 4) MS- Access 5) MS-Outlook 111. Collection of 1024 Bytes: 1) 1MB 2) 1KB 3) 1TB 4) 1GB 5) 100 MB 112. How would you be able to protect yourself from phishing? 1) Call your local fish store. 2) Get an Anti-Virus Program 3) Change Passwords Every 4-6 months 4) 2 & 3 5) All the above 113. Why is identity theft something hackers usually go for? 1) Personal Information 2) Being able to have another name 3) Send them emails 4) Take their victim's address for future use 5) All the above 114. This type of software is on computers and collects small pieces of information from users. It is also difficult to detect, what is it? 1) Spam 2) Malware 3) Phishing 4) Spyware 5) Under ware 115. Many malware programs gather information that leads to loss of privacy. How can you generally be protected from this? 1) Close window 2) Never use your computer 3) Anti-Virus Program 4) Turn Off Computer 5) Restart Computer 116. Older networks often use another type of cable, called ________ 1) Unshielded twisted-pair cable 2) Coaxial cable 3) Optical Fibre 4) Twisted-pair cable 5) Data cable 117. Which device can understand difference between data & programs? 1) Input device 2) Output device 3) Memory 4) Microprocessor 5) RAM 118. Total keys keyboard is most popular 1) 123 2) 111 3) 101 4) 134 5) 143 119. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages? 1) Mail Client 2) FTP Client 3) Messenger 4) Browser 5) Server 120. Which of the following best suits the statement below? It's the main memory of the computer system and is volatile. 1) RAM 2) ROM 3) PROM 4) Primary storage 5) Secondary storage GENERAL ENGLISH Directions (Q. 121-130): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. March 12, 1992, Mauritius becomes a republic and is tipped as the first 'tiger' of the Indian Ocean and Africa. Population density is still high at 1500 persons per square mile, but the population growth rate has been contained at less than two per cent per year in the 1990s. The structure of the economy has undergone substantial transformation. Diversification away from sugar (but not at its expense) has been achieved. Textile and garment, and tourism are the two other leading sectors today. The major challenge today is not finding jobs but finding enough skilled labour to maintain the competitiveness of the economy. The unemployment rate stands at less than three per cent. The overall balance of payments is positive. Income per capital is Rs.25000, placing Mauritius among the middle income group of countries. Mauritius is now poised to move to a higher development phase. 121. The main industry of Mauritius still is ___ 1) textiles 2) tourism 3) sugar 4) cement 5) garment 122. One of the chief concerns of the country now is to ___ 1) find skilled workers 2) find jobs for the unemployed 3) diversify industrial growth 4) change the economic structure 5) poverty 123. Which one of the following statements does NOT directly refer to the economic development of the country? 1) Population growth rate has been contained 2) Industry has become competitive 3) Income per capita is nearly Rs. 25000 4) Two per cent 5) Balance of payments is positive 124. The population growth rate per year in the 1990s is ___ 1) less than three per cent 2) three per cent 3) less than two per cent 4) two per cent 5) more than two percent 125. Mauritius is tipped as the first 'tiger' of the Indian Ocean and Africa suggests it ___ 1) can lay down in battles 2) has developed a good image 3) Lie and wait to make a surprise attack 4) Living by eating both vegetables and flesh 5) One who knows many languages. Directions (Q. 126-128): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 126. Tipped 1) Hold 2) Place 3) Tighten 4) Conceal 5) Topple 127. Diversification 1) Heterogeneity 2) Similar 3) Parallel 4) Analogous 5) Related 128. Challenge 1) Accept 2) Agree 3) Decide 4) Confront 5) Peace Directions (Q. 129-130): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 129. Poised 1) Balanced 2) Hovering 3) Perched 4) Refuse 5) Hanging 130. Skilled 1) Accomplished 2) Inept 3) Trained 4) Experienced 5) Practiced Directions (Q. 131-135): Each question below has a blank/ two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word/ set of words from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 131. Sujatha is ____ clever, but her brother is ____ stupid. 1) rather, rather 2) rather, fairly 3) fairly, very fair 4) fairly, also fairly 5) fairly, rather 132. Iron is more useful than ____ metal. 1) many 2) any other 3) other 4) all 5) of all 133. The king was ___ off his chair by his minister. 1) throw 2) thrown 3) thorn 4) throes 5) throws 134. I don't expect him to change his mind because I know he is very___. 1) obstinate 2) elegant 3) dynamic 4) tolerance 5) obedient 135. My father gets angry with us whenever we make a mistake. He has no ____ for mistakes. 1) dynamic 2) tolerance 3) obedient 4) unfavorable 5) impatient Directions (Q. 136-140): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 136. In addition to enhanced their reputations (1)/ through strategic use of philanthropy, (2)/ companies are sponsoring social initiatives (3)/ to open new markets. (4)/ No error (5) 137. The police (1)/ has so far succeeded (2)/ in recovering (3)/ only a part of the stolen property. (4)/ No error (5) 138. He confidentially asked the crowd (1)/ if they thought (2)/ he was right (3)/ and the crowd shouted that he did. (4)/ No error (5) 139. I earnestly believed that (1)/ you will visit our relatives (2)/ during your forthcoming trip (3)/ to Mumbai. (4)/ No error (5) 140. Though we have kept in mind to try and maintain most facilities, (1)/ we would like to request you to (2)/ kindly bear with us (3)/ any inconvenience that may be caused. (4)/ No error (5) Key: 94) 2; 95) 2; 96) 3; 97) 4; 98) 1; 99) 3; 100) 3; 101) 2; 102) 4; 103) 4; 104) 3; 105) 1; 106) 2; 107) 2; 108) 3; 109) 3; 110) 3; 111) 2; 112) 4; 113) 1; 114) 4; 115) 3; 116) 2; 117) 4; 118) 3; 119) 4; 120) 1; 121) 3; 122) 1; 123) 4; 124) 3; 125) 2; 126) 5; 127) 1; 128) 4; 129) 4; 130) 2; 131) 5; 132) 2; 133) 2; 134) 1; 135) 2; 136) 1; 137) 2; 138) 4; 139) 1; 140) 5. (Continued in tomorrow's VIDYA) -
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Reasoning Directions (Q.1-5): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I follows. 2) If only conclusion II follows. 3) If either conclusion I or II follows. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5) If both conclusions I and II follow. 1. Statements: All scales are straight. No straight is round. Conclusions: I. At least some scales are round. II. No scales is round. 2. Statements: No poor is a rich. Some rich are big. Conclusions: I. No big is poor. II. Some big are definitely not poor. 3. Statements: Some TVs are colourful. All colourful are attractive. Conclusions: I. At least some TVs are attractive. II. All attractive are colourful. 4. Statements: All chocolates are tasty. All tasty are expensive. Conclusions: I. All expensive are chocolates. II.At least some expensive are tasty. 5. Statements: Some chairs are red. Some red are sofas. Conclusions: I. Some sofas are chairs. II. No chair is sofa. Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 6. Statement: A ³ B = Q > C £ L Conclusions: I. C < A II. L ³ B 7. Statements: A > Y ³ L> K < R Conclusions: I. Y > K II. A > R 8. Statements: R = B £ C> D Conclusions: I. R > D II. D ³ B 9. Statement: T ³ P > N = A £ K Conclusions: I. T ³ K II. T < K 10. Statement: P ³ Q £ R = T > S Conclusions: I. P > S II. S ³ Q Directions (Q.11-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III- tier sleeper berth. Each of them has a different profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pa-thologist. They occupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer is not on the upper berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are not on the middle berth and their professions are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a journalist nor an Architect. K occupies same type of berth as that of the Doctor. 11. What is D's profession? 1) Doctor 2) Engineer 3) Lawyer 4) Pharmacist 5) Data inadequate 12. Which of the following group occu-pies middle berth? 1) DKR 2) DHT 3) HKT 4) DKT 5) None of these 13. Which of the following combi-nations of person-berth-profession is correct? 1) R-Lower - Journalist 2) R-Lower - Architect 3) D-Upper - Doctor 4) K-Upper - Lawyer 5) All are correct 14. Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth? 1) BD 2) BR 3) BT 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 15. Who is Architect? 1) D 2) H 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 16. Which of the following pairs occupy the upper berth? 1) BD 2) BR 3) MH 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Directions (Q.17-21): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer 1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question. 17. Towards which direction Ravi is finally facing? I. Ravi travelled towards north direction and he took right. He went further turned 90° Anti clockwise II. Early in the morning at 6 AM, when Ravi went for a walk he observed that his shadow is falling on his left side. 18. Who amongst A, B, C, D, E and F is the heaviest? I. A is heavier that C and E but not as heavy as F, who is heavier than B and D. II. C is the third in Weight in the ascending order and not as heavy as F, A and B. B being heavier than A, but is not the heaviest. 19. Is P the sister of Q? I. Q is the son of R. R is also the father of P. II. S is the wife of R, and this couple has two sons and only one daughter. 20. On which day was Lavanya born? I. Her mother correctly remembers that Lavanya was after 12th and before 17th of February. II. Her father correctly remembers that Lavanya was born neither on even number date nor on a prime number date. 21. What is Krishna's rank in the class of 50 students? I. Kalpana, whose rank is 28th in the class from the bottom, is ahead of Krishna by 6 ranks. II. There are two ranks between Krishna's and Venkat's rank, whose rank is 26th from the top. Directions (Q.22 - 27): Study carefully the following arrangement of letters, digits and symbols to answer these questions. M 7 £ 8 L P @? 6 N b T Y 3 2 = E $ 4 9 © G H 5 22. How many such letters are there in the arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a num-ber? 1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Two 5) None of these 23. How many such symbols are there in the arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number? 1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Nil 5) None of these 24. If all the symbols are deleted from the arrangement, which of the follo wing will be fourth to the left of the 17th element from the left end? 1) 9 2) E 3) 2 4) 4 5) None of these 25. '78' is to 'P? 6' and '? N' is to 'T32' in the same way as '2E' is to ___ in the arrangement. 1) 4©H 2) 49G 3) 4©G 4) 9GH 5) None of these 26. If all the numbers are deleted from the arrangement then which of the following will be fifth to the right of the 13th element from the right end? 1) b 2) N 3) Y 4) T 5) None of these 27. Which of the following letters is as far away from M to the right as G is away from N? 1) b 2) N 3) Y 4) T 5) None of these Directions (Q.28-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight friends E, F, G, H, J, L. M and N are sitting around a circle facing the centre. E sits fourth to the right of F. H sits second of the left of F. J sits third to right of M and M is not an immediate neighbour of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of E and N sits second to left of G. 28. In which of the following groups of people is the third person sitting exactly in the middle of the first and the second person? 1) HLE 2) MGL 3) MFJ 4) HFN 5) None of these 29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) EN 2) FL 3) ME 4) LH 5) NM 30. Which of the following pairs repre-sents the immediate neighbours of M? 1) LE 2) JH 3) LG 4) FG 5) None of these 31. Starting from E, if all the friends are made to sit in the alphabetical order of their names in the anti-clockwise direction, the positions of how many (except E) will remain unchanged? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 32. Who sits third to the right of F? 1) J 2) L 3) H 4) M 5) None of these Directions (Q.33-37): Study the following statements carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language 'go to school' is coded as 'ba la ka', 'I go there' is coded as 'nu ka ma', and 'school is there' is coded as 'da ba nu'. 33. What does 'la' stand for? 1) go 2) school 3) to 4) cannot be determined 5) None of these 34. What is the code for 'there' ? 1) da 2) nu 3) either da or ba 4) ba 5) None of these 35. How will 'I' be coded? 1) ma 2) nu 3) ka 4) either ma or ka 5) None of these 36. What may be the code for 'you may go there'? 1) ka nu pa za 2) pa za nu la 3) pa za ka la 4) pa za ba da 5) pa za nu ma 37. What is the code for 'go'? 1) la 2) nu 3) ma 4) ka 5) ba Key 1) 2; 2) 2; 3) 1; 4) 2; 5) 3; 6) 1; 7) 1; 8) 3; 9) 3; 10) 4; 11) 1; 12) 4; 13) 2; 14) 2; 15) 3; 16) 3; 17) 3; 18) 3; 19) 4; 20) 5; 21) 1; 22) 1; 23) 2; 24) 4; 25) 3; 26) 4; 27) 3; 28) 4; 29) 3; 30) 3; 31) 2; 32) 2; 33) 3; 34) 2; 35) 1; 36) 1; 37) 4.
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