TV
model Paper
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టెన్త్‌ మోడల్‌ పేపర్లు విడుదల
సాక్షి, హైదరాబాద్‌: ఏప్రిల్‌ 3 నుంచి జరిగే పదవ తరగతి పరీక్షలకు సంబంధించిన మోడల్‌ పేపర్లను ఎస్సెస్సీ పరీక్షల విభాగం గురువారం విడుదల చేసింది. వందశాతం సిలబస్‌ నుంచి వీటిని రూపొందించారు. కోవిడ్‌ తర్వాత ఈ తరహా పరీక్ష జరపడం ఇదే మొదటిసారి. 2020లో 3 సబ్జెక్టులు నిర్వహించిన తర్వాత కోవిడ్‌ ఉధృతి దృష్ట్యా పరీక్షలను వాయిదా వేశారు. 2021లో అసలు పరీక్షలే నిర్వహించలే దు. 2022లో పరీక్షలు పెట్టినా 70 శాతం సిలబస్‌నే అమలు చేశారు. మూడేళ్ల తర్వాత పూర్తిస్థాయి సిలబస్‌తో నిర్వహించనున్నారు. దీంతో టెన్త్‌ పరీక్షల విధానం పూర్తిగా అర్థమయ్యేలా చర్యలు తీసుకోవాలని ఉన్నతాధికారులు పాఠశాలల యాజమాన్యాలకు సూచించారు. వంద శాతం ఫలితాలు సాధించే దిశగా కృషి చేసేందుకు ఇదే సరై న మార్గమని అభిప్రాయపడుతున్నారు. గతంలో పరీక్షలను 11 పేపర్లతో నిర్వహించగా, ఇప్పుడు 6 పేపర్లకు కుదించారు. ఇది కూడా కొత్త విధానం కావడంతో అవగా హన కల్పించాలని హెచ్‌ఎంలకు పాఠశాల విద్యాశాఖ సూచించింది. డిసెంబర్‌ కల్లా సిలబస్‌ పూర్తి చేసి, జనవరిలో రివిజన్‌ చేపట్టడంతోపాటు, బోర్డు విడుదల చేసిన మోడల్‌ పేపర్లతో విద్యార్థులను సన్నద్ధం చేయాలని చెప్పింది. ఏయే చాప్టర్ల నుంచి ఏ తరహా ప్రశ్నలు రావొచ్చు, మార్కులు ఎలా ఉంటాయనే వివరాలను, మోడల్‌ పేపర్లను బోర్డ్‌ ఆఫ్‌ సెకండరీ ఎడ్యుకేషన్‌ వెబ్‌సైట్‌లో అందుబాటులో ఉంచారు. వీటిని అనుసరిస్తే మంచి మార్కులు సాధించవచ్చని అధికారులు అంటున్నారు. -
ఏపీ గ్రూప్–2 స్క్రీనింగ్ టెస్ట్ మోడల్‌ పేపర్
(నిన్నటి తరువాయి) 137. కేంద్ర ప్రభుత్వం పెట్టుబడుల ఉపసంహరణను ఎప్పుడు చేపట్టింది? 1) 1990, డిసెంబర్‌ 2) 1991, డిసెంబర్‌ 3) 1992, డిసెంబర్‌ 4) 1993, డిసెంబర్‌ 138. ఎవరి ఆధ్వర్యంలో పెట్టుబడుల ఉపసంహరణ కమిషన్‌ను ఏర్పాటు చేశారు? 1) సుబిమల్‌ దత్‌ 2) జి.వి. రామకృష్ణ 3) రంగరాజన్‌ 4) కేల్కర్‌ 139. జాతీయ తయారీ విధానాన్ని ప్రభుత్వం ఎప్పుడు ప్రకటించింది? 1) 2011, అక్టోబర్‌ 4 2) 2011, నవంబర్‌ 4 3) 2011, డిసెంబర్‌ 4 4) 2012, జనవరి 4 140. కింది వాటిలో మహారత్న హోదా లేని ప్రభుత్వ కంపెనీ? 1) స్టీల్‌ అథారిటీ ఆఫ్‌ ఇండియా లిమిటెడ్‌ 2) ఆయిల్‌ అండ్‌ నేచురల్‌ గ్యాస్‌ లిమిటెడ్‌ 3) కోల్‌ ఇండియా లిమిటెటడ్‌ 4) మహానగర్‌ టెలిఫోన్‌ నిగమ్‌ లిమిటెడ్‌ 141. మనదేశంలో ఇండస్ట్రియల్‌ డిస్ప్యూట్‌ యాక్ట్‌ ఎప్పటి నుంచి అమల్లోకి వచ్చింది? 1) 1947, జనవరి 1 2) 1947, ఫిబ్రవరి 1 3) 1947, మార్చి 1 4) 1947, ఏప్రిల్‌ 1 142. ఆదేశిక సూత్రాల్లోని ఏ ఆర్టికల్‌ ప్రకారం ‘పనిచేసే హక్కు’ కల్పించారు? 1) 40 2) 41 3) 42 4) 43 143. కింది వాటిలో సరికానిది? 1) ది చైల్డ్‌ లేబర్‌ (ప్రొహిబిషన్‌ అండ్‌ రెగ్యులేషన్‌) యాక్ట్‌– 1986 2) ది కాంట్రాక్ట్‌ లేబర్‌ (రెగ్యులేషన్‌ అండ్‌ అబాలిషన్‌) యాక్ట్‌ – 1970 3) ది మెటర్నిటీ బెనిఫిట్‌ యాక్ట్‌ – 1961 4) ది పేమెంట్‌ ఆఫ్‌ గ్రాట్యూటీ యాక్ట్‌ –1962 144. 2015–16లో ఆహార ధాన్యాల ఉత్పత్తి లక్ష్యం 264 మిలియన్‌ టన్నులు కాగా, జరిగిన ఉత్పత్తి? 1) 251.23 టన్నులు 2) 252.232 టన్నులు 3) 253.23 టన్నులు 4) 254.23 టన్నులు 145. ఏ రుతుపవన కాలాన్ని ఖరీఫ్‌గా పేర్కొంటారు? 1) నైరుతి 2) ఈశాన్య 3) ఆగ్నేయ 4) వాయవ్య 146. హరిత విప్లవం అనే పదాన్ని మొదటగా పేర్కొన్న వ్యక్తి? 1) నార్మన్‌ బోర్లాగ్‌ 2) కురియన్‌ 3) ఎం.ఎస్‌. స్వామినాథన్‌ 4) విలియం గాడ్‌ 147. జతపర్చండి? జాబితా –1 జీ) సిల్వర్‌ విప్లవం జీజీ) శ్వేత విప్లవం జీజీజీ) పసుపు విప్లవం జీఠి) గోల్డెన్‌ విప్లవం జాబితా–2 a) నూనె గింజల ఉత్పత్తి b) తేనె, పండ్ల ఉత్పత్తి ఛి) గుడ్లు, పౌల్ట్రీ ఉత్పత్తులు ఛీ) పాల ఉత్పత్తులు 1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d 2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d 3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b 4) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b 148. ప్రాంతీయ అసమానతల కొలమానాల్లో లేనిది? 1) రాష్ట్ర తలసరి ఆదాయం 2) పట్టణీకరణ 3) ప్రచ్ఛన్న నిరుద్యోగిత 4) పారిశ్రామిక ఉద్యోగిత 149. రిజర్వ్‌ బ్యాంక్‌ ఆఫ్‌ ఇండియా ప్రచురించిన ఏ్చnఛీ bౌౌజు ౌజ S్ట్చ్టజీట్టజీఛిటౌn ్టజ్ఛి ఐnఛీజ్చీn ఉఛిౌnౌఝy (201314) ప్రకారం 2011–12లో పేదరికరేఖ దిగువన ఉన్న దేశ జనాభా? 1) 20.9% 2) 21.9% 3) 22.9% 4) 23.9% 150. అతి తక్కువ స్త్రీ అక్షరాస్యత ఉన్న రాష్ట్రం? 1) రాజస్థాన్‌ 2) బిహార్‌ 3) మధ్యప్రదేశ్‌ 4) అసోం -
IBPS Clerks CWE-IV Model Paper
No. of Questions: 200 Maximum Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hours 157. The area of square is 6050 sq m. Then find the diagonal of square? 1) 110 m 2) 111.12 m 3) 124 m 4) 125 m 5) None of these 158. The total cost of 25 tables and 40 chairs is Rs. 9,600. What is the total price of 10 tables and 15 chairs? 1) Rs. 4,100 2) Rs. 4265.50 3) Rs. 5400 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 159. The area of a rectangle is twice the area of a triangle. The perimeter of the rectangle is 58cm. What is the area of the triangle? 1) 106cm2 2) 108cm2 3) 104cm2 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 160. 45% students from a college participated in a survey. What is the respective ratio between the number of students who did not participate in the survey to the number of students participated? 1) 9 : 11 2) 11 : 13 3) 12 : 13 4) 11 : 9 5) None of these 161. Which of the following is not a logical database structure? 1) Chain 2) Network 3) Tree 4) Relational 5) All of the above 162. Which of the following is not a standard MS office Edition? 1) CE 2) Advanced 3) Standard 4) Professional 5) None of these 163. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment? 1) Keyboard 2) Mouse 3) Joystick 4) Track ball 5) All of the above 164. Which of the following is not a part of standard office suit? 1) File Manager 2) Image Editor 3) Database 4) Word Processor 5) None of these 165. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets? 1) Java 2) Cable 3) Domain name 4) Net 5) Cobol 166. An online discussion group that allows direct "live" communication is known as ___ 1) WebCrawler 2) Chat group 3) Regional service provider 4) Hyperlink 5) E-mail 167. The other name of motherboard is: 1) Chip sheet 2) Computer board 3) System device 4) Central board 5) System board 168. The basic goal of the computer process is to convert data into ___ 1) Graphs 2) Tables 3) Files 4) Data 5) Information 169. To restart the computer which of the following combination of keys used? 1) Del + Ctrl 2) Backspace + Ctrl 3) Ctrl + Alt +Del 4) Insert +Esc 5) Esc +Ctrl 170. The storage devices used to compensate for the difference in rates of flow of data from one device to another is termed as ___ 1) Chip 2) Channel 3) Floppy 4) Call 5) Buffer 171. Which of the following companies is a leader in manufacture of Hard Disk Drives? 1) Samsung 2) IBM 3) Fujitsu 4) Seagate 5) Moratala 172. DSL is an example of a(n) ____ connection. 1) Network 2) Wireless 3) Slow 4) Cable 5) Broadband 173. ____ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion. 1) A process 2) Software 3) Storage 4) Information 174. ____ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks. 1) An instruction 2) Software 3) Hardware 4) Memory 5) A processor 175. Any part of the computer that you can physically touch is called as ___ 1) Hardware 2) Software 3) A device 4) A peripheral 5) An application 176. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen? 1) Tab stop box 2) Left Indent 3) Right Indent 4) Center Indent 5) All of these are available on ruler 177. ___ is the section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program instructions. 1) Memory 2) Register unit 3) Control unit 4) ALU 5) System unit 178. Which was the world's first minicomputer and when was it introduced? 1) PDP-I, 1958 2) IBM System/36, 1960 3) PDP-II, 1961 4) VAX 11/780, 1962 5) PDP-I, 1963 179. Which of the following is a software package to implement a data base? 1) System analysis 2) DBMS 3) Database 4) DASD 5) File analysis 180. The permanent memory built into your computer is called ___ 1) ROM 2) CD-ROM 3) RAM 4) CPU 5) Mother board 181. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options? 1) Page 2) Document 3) Section 4) Page Setup 5) Page layout 182. The term "push" and "pop" is related to the: 1) Array 2) Lists 3) Stacks 4) All of the above 5) None of these 183. www is based on which model? 1) Local server 2) Client server 3) 3 tier 4) World server 5) User server 184. Which of the following is not a domain name extension? 1) .mil 2) .org 3) .int 4) .com 5) All of the above 185. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from one machine to another? 1) FTP 2) SNMP 3) SMTP 4) RPC 5) HTTP 186. A processor that collects the transmissions from several communications media and sends them over a single line that operates at a higher capacity is called? 1) Multiplexor 2) Bridge 3) Hub 4) Router 5) None of these 187. Which of the following is used for manufacturing chips? 1) Control bus 2) Control unit 3) Parity unit 4) Semiconductor 5) Process unit 188. ____ defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs. 1) Instance 2) Schema 3) Program 4) Super Key 5) Code 189. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would use a(n): 1) RGB monitor 2) Plotter 3) Ink-jet printer 4) Laser printer 5) All of the above 190. What component would most likely cause a "parity error"? 1) Bad hard disk 2) Bad controller 3) Bad RAM 4) Bad software 5) Bad OS 191. _____ transforms one interface into another interface. 1) Software 2) Program 3) Data 4) File 5) Code 192. A URL can specify the IP address of the web ____ that houses a Web page? 1) server 2) client 3) page 4) user 5) e-mail recipient 193. The three basic categories of connection to the internet include all EXCEPT? 1) Direct connection 2) Dial-up 3) Broadband 4) Direct satellite 5) None of these 194. Hundreds of Universities, Government entities and Research labs have formed ____. 1) Internet 2) www 3) Internet2 4) TCP/IP 5) Intranet 195. Which of the following is not an example of hardware? 1) Scanner 2) Printer 3) Mouse 4) Monitor 5) Interpreter 196. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an ____ 1) Interpreter 2) CPU 3) Compiler 4) Simulator 5) RAM 197. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? 1) Pixel 2) Reverse video 3) Touch screen 4) Cursor 5) Note pad 198. The first digital computer built with IC chips: 1) IBM 7090 2) Apple - 1 3) VAX-10 4) Dell-1 5) IBM System / 360 199. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory? 1) Best case 2) Worst case 3) Average case 4) All cases 5) Null case 200. Which of the following American Computer Company is called big blue? 1) Microsoft 2) Compaq Corp 3) IBM 4) Tandy Stevenson 5) Samsung KEY: 157) 1; 158) 4; 159) 4; 160) 1; 161) 1; 162) 2; 163) 2; 164) 1; 165) 1; 166) 2; 167) 5; 168) 3; 169) 3; 170) 5; 171) 4; 172) 5; 173) 4; 174) 2; 175) 1; 176) 4; 177) 3; 178) 1; 179) 2; 180) 1; 181) 3; 182) 3; 183) 2; 184) 3; 185) 3; 186) 1; 187) 4; 188) 2; 189) 2; 190) 3; 191) 1; 192) 1; 193) 4; 194) 3; 195) 5; 196) 1; 197) 2; 198) 5; 199) 5; 200) 3. This Model paper is prepared by: K. Lalitha Bai, K.M. Jaya Rao, N.Vijayender Reddy, B.Ravipal Reddy, K.V. Gnana Kumar. -
IBPS క్లర్క్స్ CWE-IV మోడల్‌ పేపర్
157. The area of square is 6050 sq m. Then find the diagonal of square? 1) 110 m 2) 111.12 m 3) 124 m 4) 125 m 5) None of these 158. The total cost of 25 tables and 40 chairs is Rs. 9,600. What is the total price of 10 tables and 15 chairs? 1) Rs. 4,100 2) Rs. 4265.50 3) Rs. 5400 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 159. The area of a rectangle is twice the area of a triangle. The peri- meter of the rectangle is 58cm. What is the area of the triangle? 1) 106cm2 2) 108cm2 3) 104cm2 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 160. 45% students from a college participated in a survey. What is the respective ratio between the number of students who did not participate in the survey to the number of students participated? 1) 9 : 11 2) 11 : 13 3) 12 : 13 4) 11 : 9 5) None of these 161. Which of the following is not a logical database structure? 1) Chain 2) Network 3) Tree 4) Relational 5) All of the above 162. Which of the following is not a standard MS office Edition? 1) CE 2) Advanced 3) Standard 4) Professional 5) None of these 163. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment? 1) Keyboard 2) Mouse 3) Joystick 4) Track ball 5) All of the above 164. Which of the following is not a part of standard office suit? 1) File Manager 2) Image Editor 3) Database 4) Word Processor 5) None of these 165. Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets? 1) Java 2) Cable 3) Domain name 4) Net 5) Cobol 166. An online discussion group that allows direct "live" communication is known as ___ 1) WebCrawler 2) Chat group 3) Regional service provider 4) Hyperlink 5) E-mail 167. The other name of motherboard is: 1) Chip sheet 2) Computer board 3) System device 4) Central board 5) System board 168. The basic goal of the computer process is to convert data into ___ 1) Graphs 2) Tables 3) Files 4) Data 5) Information 169. To restart the computer which of the following combination of keys used? 1) Del + Ctrl 2) Backspace + Ctrl 3) Ctrl + Alt +Del 4) Insert +Esc 5) Esc +Ctrl 170. The storage devices used to compensate for the difference in rates of flow of data from one device to another is termed as ___ 1) Chip 2) Channel 3) Floppy 4) Call 5) Buffer 171. Which of the following companies is a leader in manufacture of Hard Disk Drives? 1) Samsung 2) IBM 3) Fujitsu 4) Seagate 5) Moratala 172. DSL is an example of a(n) ____ connection. 1) Network 2) Wireless 3) Slow 4) Cable 5) Broadband 173. ____ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion. 1) A process 2) Software 3) Storage 4) Information 5) Hard ware 174. ____ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks. 1) An instruction 2) Software 3) Hardware 4) Memory 5) A processor 175. Any part of the computer that you can physically touch is called as ___ 1) Hardware 2) Software 3) A device 4) A peripheral 5) An application 176. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen? 1) Tab stop box 2) Left Indent 3) Right Indent 4) Center Indent 5) All of these are available on ruler 177. ___ is the section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the execution of program instructions. 1) Memory 2) Register unit 3) Control unit 4) ALU 5) System unit 178. Which was the world's first minicomputer and when was it introduced? 1) PDP-I, 1958 2) IBM System/36, 1960 3) PDP-II, 1961 4) VAX 11/780, 1962 5) PDP-I, 1963 179. Which of the following is a software package to implement a data base? 1) System analysis 2) DBMS 3) Database 4) DASD 5) File analysis 180. The permanent memory built into your computer is called ___ 1) ROM 2) CD-ROM 3) RAM 4) CPU 5) Mother board 181. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options? 1) Page 2) Document 3) Section 4) Page Setup 5) Page layout 182. The term "push" and "pop" is related to the: 1) Array 2) Lists 3) Stacks 4) All of the above 5) None of these 183. www is based on which model? 1) Local server 2) Client server 3) 3 tier 4) World server 5) User server 184. Which of the following is not a domain name extension? 1) .mil 2) .org 3) .int 4) .com 5) All of the above 185. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from one machine to another? 1) FTP 2) SNMP 3) SMTP 4) RPC 5) HTTP 186. A processor that collects the transmissions from several communications media and sends them over a single line that operates at a higher capacity is called? 1) Multiplexor 2) Bridge 3) Hub 4) Router 5) None of these 187. Which of the following is used for manufacturing chips? 1) Control bus 2) Control unit 3) Parity unit 4) Semiconductor 5) Process unit 188. ____ defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs. 1) Instance 2) Schema 3) Program 4) Super Key 5) Code 189. To produce high-quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would use a(n): 1) RGB monitor 2) Plotter 3) Ink-jet printer 4) Laser printer 5) All of the above 190. What component would most likely cause a "parity error"? 1) Bad hard disk 2) Bad controller 3) Bad RAM 4) Bad software 5) Bad OS 191. _____ transforms one interface into another interface. 1) Software 2) Program 3) Data 4) File 5) Code 192. A URL can specify the IP address of the web ____ that houses a Web page? 1) server 2) client 3) page 4) user 5) e-mail recipient 193. The three basic categories of connection to the internet include all EXCEPT? 1) Direct connection 2) Dial-up 3) Broadband 4) Direct satellite 5) None of these 194. Hundreds of Universities, Government entities and Research labs have formed ____. 1) Internet 2) www 3) Internet2 4) TCP/IP 5) Intranet 195. Which of the following is not an example of hard ware? 1) Scanner 2) Printer 3) Mouse 4) Monitor 5) Interpreter 196. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an ____ 1) Interpreter 2) CPU 3) Compiler 4) Simulator 5) RAM 197. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? 1) Pixel 2) Reverse video 3) Touch screen 4) Cursor 5) Note pad 198. The first digital computer built with IC chips: 1) IBM 7090 2) Apple - 1 3) VAX-10 4) Dell-1 5) IBM System / 360 199. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory? 1) Best case 2) Worst case 3) Average case 4) All cases 5) Null case 200. Which of the following American Computer Company is called big blue? 1) Microsoft 2) Compaq Corp 3) IBM 4) Tandy Stevenson 5) Samsung KEY: 157) 1; 158) 4; 159) 4; 160) 1; 161) 1; 162) 2; 163) 2; 164) 1; 165) 1; 166) 2; 167) 5; 168) 3; 169) 3; 170) 5; 171) 4; 172) 5; 173) 4; 174) 2; 175) 1; 176) 4; 177) 3; 178) 1; 179) 2; 180) 1; 181) 3; 182) 3; 183) 2; 184) 3; 185) 3; 186) 1; 187) 4; 188) 2; 189) 2; 190) 3; 191) 1; 192) 1; 193) 4; 194) 3; 195) 5; 196) 1; 197) 2; 198) 5; 199) 5; 200) 3. -
IBPS క్లర్క్స్ CWE-IV మోడల్‌ పేపర్
ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. In democratic countries men and women are equal before the law and have a voice and choice in deciding how and by whom they shall be governed. But the sharing of money which means the sharing of food grains and clothing and shelter and knowledge and other such essentials is still very unfair. It is a thus a known fact that all men are born equal but their bank accounts are not equal. On one hand some few people live in luxury, on the other hand, many have not even enough to eat and drink and wear. Even in the richest of the world's cities thousands of people live in miserable surroundings. There are many families of four, five or six persons who live in a single room; in this room they are sleep and dress and wash and eat their meals; in this room they are born, and in this same room they grow up and die. And they live like this not by choice or for fun, but because they are too poor to afford another room. It is, I think, clear that until and unless everyone gets his or her proper share of necessary and delightful things, our culture and civilization will be far from perfect. 1. What is the advantage of democracy? 1) Men and women are unequal before law 2) People have a choice regarding luxuries 3) Bank accounts can be maintained 4) They can choose their leaders 5) They are part of the whole 2. What is the contrast brought out by the author? 1) People have choice 2) Men and women are equal 3) Few people live in luxury 4) Sharing of money is unfair 5) People can elect their leaders 3. What did the author say about rich nations? 1) They are not devoid of people living in miserable conditions 2) They have all rich people living 3) People are living in poverty 4) They can afford anything 5) They need not abide law 4. Ideal civilization can be achieved 1) When men and women are treated equal 2) When law does not take action 3) When people live by showing their might 4) When everyone gets his share of things 5) When people die in misery Directions (Q. No. 5-7): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 5. Perfect 1) Just 2) Fair 3) Ideal 4) Wrong 5) Great 6. Proper 1) Right 2) Apt 3) Apposite 4) Rude 5) Decent 7. Afford 1) Manage 2) Paucity 3) Dearth 4) Direction 5) Dissent Directions (Q. No. 8-10): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 8. Delightful 1) Enjoyable 2) Disgusting 3) Sordid 4) Repulsive 5) Foul 9. Governed 1) Garner 2) Acquire 3) Ruled 4) Plain 5) State 10. Miserable 1) Depressed 2) Digest 3) Digress 4) Divest 5) Divulge Directions (Q. No. 11-15): Each question below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 11. I tried to persuade her, but she refuses to ____ me. 1) listen to 2) hear to 3) heard 4) listened 5) hearing 12. Did they like the ____? 1) travel 2) journey 3) more 4) go 5) through 13. You're already dark. I'm afraid black clothes may not ___ you well. 1) fitness 2) suitable 3) suit 4) fit 5) matching 14. We're _____ for more orders very soon. 1) wait 2) waits 3) expect 4) waiting 5) expecting 15. They ______ to accept the compensation offered to them. 1) deny 2) refusing 3) refused 4) reject 5) neglected Directions (Q. No. 16-20): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given these are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct as your answer.' 16. He (1) backed up (2) the manager's (3) proposal. (4) All Correct (5) 17. The last round of (1) negotiations came (2) to a sudden close with the note of (3) renewed agitation. (4) All Correct (5) 18. Many (1) working woman (2) are unhappy at the lack of (3) childcare facilities.(4) All Correct (5) 19. Sridevi is so self-effusing (1) that in such a (2) big crowd, you cannot (3) easily notice (4) her. All Correct (5) 20. Though (1) she was very tempted to reveal (2) the secret she exercised (3) some free. (4) All Correct (5) Directions (Q. No. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 21. A clear understanding of the various benefits of (1)/ getting trained in different skills (2)/ are necessary to be able to (3)/ appreciate programs of this kind. (4)/ No error (5) 22. When we reached (1)/ the town (2)/ we found so many filth (3)/ all around the town. (4)/ No error (5) 23. To get profit (1)/ always remember that (2)/ the price of the articles you sell (3)/ should be more than the articles you buy. (4)/ No error (5) 24. My friend said that (1)/ he is hardly pressed for money (2)/ and so cannot (3)/ help me financially. (4)/ No error (5) 25. None of the seats (1)/ in the auditorium (2)/ are available (3)/ for occupation at present. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (Q. No. 26 - 30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 26. There was an alteration between the ruling party members and opposition members. 1) altercation 2) alternative 3) alternate 4) substitute 5) No correction required 27. A collector is one in a district. 1) one and only 2) all in one 3) all in all 4) only 5) No correction required 28. Most computer scientists are believing that computers of tomorrow will have near human capacity to reason. 1) is believing 2) had believing 3) believe 4) was believing 5) No correction required 29. India has become an independent country at the midnight of 15th August 1947. 1) August 15th 1947 2) 1947 August 15th 3) 1947, 15th August 4) 15 August 1947 5) No correction required 30. He stressed on the important of careful driving. 1) on the importantly 2) on the importance 3) the importance 4) upon importance 5) No correction required Directions (Q. No. 31-40): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. Prejudice in its ordinary and ___ (31) sense, is prejudging any question without having ___ (32) examined it, and adhering to our opinion upon it through ignorance and malice, in spite of every ____(33) to the contrary. The little that we know has a strong alloy of misgiving and uncertainty in it. The mass of things of which we have no means of ___ (34), but of which we form a blind and ___ (35) opinion as if we were thoroughly ___ (36) with them is monstrous. Prejudice is the child of ignorance. Sometimes our actual knowledge falls short of our ___ (37) to know. The absence of proof, instead of suspending our judgment only gives us an ___(38) of making things out according to our wishes and ___(39). Ignorance here is a black canvass on which we paint objects black or white, magnify or ____(40) them at our option. 31. 1) legal 2) illegal 3) legible 4) illegible 5) literal 32. 1) sufficiently 2) fancies 3) evidence 4) acquainted 5) desire 33. 1) confident 2) opportunity 3) goal 4) fancies 5) evidence 34. 1) desire 2) judging 3) guide 4) diminish 5) adequate 35. 1) swayed 2) scornful 3) finer 4) confident 5) backing 36. 1) desire 2) ambitious 3) acquainted 4) good-will 5) opportunity 37. 1) goal 2) fancies 3) desire 4) adequate 5) sufficiently 38. 1) adequate 2) evidence 3) opportunity 4) confidence 5) desire 39. 1) whims 2) fancies 3) impulses 4) wish 5) likes 40. 1) desire 2) modification 3) diminish 4) neglect 5) judge Directions (Q. No. 41-45): In each question below are given some statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 41. Statements: Some cruel animals are papers No paper is tree All trees are ways Conclusions: I: No cruel animal is tree II: some ways are trees III: Some papers are cruel animals IV: Some cruel animals are trees 1) I and II Only 2) II, III and IV only 3) Only either I or IV and III 4) I, II and III only 5) Either I or IV and II and III follow. 42. Statements: Some dogs are rats All rats are trees Some trees are not dogs Conclusions: I: Some trees are dogs II: All dogs are trees III: All rats are dogs IV: All trees are dogs 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only I and II follow 4) Only II and III follow 5) All follow 43. Statements: All lions are ducks No duck is a horse All horses are fruits Conclusions: I: No lion is a horse II: Some fruits are horses III: Some ducks are lions IV: Some lions are horses 1) All follow 2) Only either I or II and both III and IV follow 3) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow 4) Only either I or IV and II follow 5) Only I, II and III follow 44. Statements: Some ice are rings No ring is paint Some rings are gold Conclusions: I: No any gold is paint II: No any ice is gold III: Some rings are paints IV: All golds are rings 1) Only I and III follow 2) Only I and II follow 3) Only III and IV follow 4) Only either II and III follow 5) None of these 45. Statements: All gates are flowers Some gates are fruits Some flowers are clips Conclusions: I: Some flowers are fruits II: Some clips are fruits III: Some clips are gates IV: No any flower is fruit 1) Only I follows 2) Only I and IV follow 3) Only II and IV follow 4) Only I and III follow 5) None of these Directions (Q. No. 46 - 50): Study carefully the following arrangement of letters, digits and symbols to answer the following questions. R Y 8 = S £ d E G M ¤ 7 $ J F 9 K L b @ W Q 1 3 # C D © 46. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the positions of the elements in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group? 1) 8YCD 2) £S13 3) RS©3 4) £E1W 5) = #8C 47. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed by a number or immediately preceded by a letter, but not both? 1) Nil 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3 5) None of these 48. '8YS' is to 'EG£' in the same way as 'FJK' is to 1) @WL 2) WQb 3) @3Q 4) @WK 5) None of these 49. How many such letters are there each of which is either immediately followed by a number or immediately preceded by a symbol, but not both? 1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 5) None of these 50. How many such numbers are there each of which is either immediately followed by a symbol or immediately preceded by a letter, but not both? 1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 5 5) None of these Directions (Q. No. 51-55): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions: 51. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T as definitely true? 1) O > T 2) S < R 3) T > A 4) S = O 5) T < R 52. Which of the following symbols should replace the questions mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression 'P > A' as well as 'T< L' definitely true? P > L ? A > N = T 1) > 2) < 3) ³ 4) = or < 5) Either > or < 53. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions 'B>N' as well as 'D< L' definitely true? B __ L ___O __ N __ D 1) =, =, <, < 2) >, <, =, > 3) >, <, =, = 4) >, =, =, < 5) >, =, >, > 54. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression 'A < P' definitely false? ___ < ___ < ___ > ___ 1) L, N, P, A 2) L, A, P, N 3) A, L, P, N 4) N, A, P, L 5) P, N, A, L 55. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression 'F > N' and 'U > D' definitely true? F __ O __ U __ N __ D 1) <, <, >, = 2) <, =, =, > 3) <, =, =, < 4) >, =, =, > 5) >, >, =, < Directions (Q. No. 56 - 60): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, G and I are seven friends who study in three different standards namely 5th, 6th and 7th such that not less than two friends study in the same standard. Each friend also has a different favorite subject namely History, Civics, English, Marathi, Hindi, Mathematics and Economics but not necessarily in the same order. A likes Mathematics and studies in the 5th standard with only one other friend who likes Marathi. I studies with two other friends. Both the friends who study with I like languages (Here languages include only Hindi, Marathi and English). D Studies in the 6th standard with only one person and does not like Civics. E studies with only one friend. The one who likes History does not study in 5th or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C does not like English, Hindi or Civics. 56. Which combination represents E's favourite subject and the standard in which he studies? 1) Civics and 7th 2) Economics and 5th 3) Civics and 6th 4) History and 7th 5) Economics and 7th 57. Which of the following is I's favourite subject? 1) History 2) Civics 3) Marathi 4) Either English or Marathi 5) Either English or Hindi 58. Which of the following is definitely correct? 1) G in 6th 2) C in 6th 3) E in 5th 4) D in 5th 5) B in 7th 59. Which of the following is definitely correct? 1) I and Hindi 2) G and English 3) C and Marathi 4) B and Hindi 5) E and Economics 60. Which of the following subjects does G like? 1) Either Mathematics or Marathi 2) Either Hindi or English 3) Either Hindi or Civics 4) Either Hindi or Marathi 5) Either Civics or Economics Directions (Q. No. 61 - 65): Study the information and answer the following questions: In a certain code language 'economics is not money' is written as 'ka la ho ga'; 'demand and supply economics' is written as 'mo ta pa ka'; 'money makes only part' is written as, 'zi la ne ki'; 'demand makes supply economics' is written as, 'zi mo ka ta'. 61. What is the code for 'money' in the given code language? 1) ga 2) mo 3) pa 4) ta 5) la 62. What is the code for 'supply' in the given code language? 1) Only ta 2) Only mo 3) Either pa or mo 4) Only pa 5) Either mo or ta 63. What could be the code for 'demand only more' in the given code language? 1) xi ne mo 2) mo zi ne 3) ki ne mo 4) mo zi ki 5) xi ka ta 64. What may be the possible code for 'work and money' in the given code language? 1) pa ga la 2) pa la tu 3) mo la pa 4) tu la ga 5) pa la ne 65. What is the code for 'makes' in the given code language? 1) mo 2) pa 3) ne 4) zi 5) ho Directions (Q. No. 66 - 70): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions: If A + B means A is the father of B If A × B means A is the sister of B If A $ B means A is the wife of B If A % B means A is the mother of B If A ÷ B means A is the son of B 66. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that J is the brother of T in the expression? J ÷ P % H ? T % L 1) × 2) ÷ 3) $ 4) Either ÷ or × 5) Either + or ÷ 67. Which among the given expression indicate the M is the daughter of D? 1) L % R $ D + T × M 2) L + R $ D + M × T 3) L % R % D + T ÷ M 4) D + L $ R × M + T 5) L $ D ÷ R % M ÷ T 68. Which among the following options is true if the expression ' I + T % J × L ÷ K' is definitely true? 1) L is the daughter of T 2) K is the son-in-law of I 3) I is the grandmother of L 4) T is the father of J 5) J is the brother of L 69. Which among the following expression of true if Y is the son of X is definitely false? 1) W % L × T × Y ÷ X 2) W + L × T × Y ÷ X 3) X + L × T × Y ÷ W 4) W $ X + L + Y + T 5) W % X + T × Y ÷ L 70. What should come in place of the question mark, to establish that T is the sister-in-law of Q in the expression? R % T × P ? Q + V 1) ÷ 2) % 3) × 4) $ 5) Either $ or × KEY: 1) 4 2) 3 3) 1 4) 4 5) 4 6) 4 7) 2 8) 1 9) 3 10) 1 11) 1 12) 2 13) 3 14) 5 15) 3 16) 2 17) 3 18) 2 19) 1 20) 4 21) 3 22) 3 23) 4 24) 2 25) 3 26) 1 27) 3 28) 3 29) 4 30) 3 31) 5 32) 1 33) 5 34) 2 35) 4 36) 3 37) 3 38) 3 39) 2 40) 3 41) 5 42) 2 43) 5 44) 5 45) 1 46) 5 47) 5 48) 1 49) 5 50) 4 51) 2 52) 1 53) 5 54) 5 55) 4 56) 3 57) 1 58) 5 59) 3 60) 2 61) 5 62) 5 63) 1 64) 2 65) 4 66) 1 67) 2 68) 2 69) 4 70) 4 -
సివిల్స్ ప్రిలిమ్స్ పేపర్-2 మోడల్‌ పేపర్ 'కీ'
(Continuation to yesterday's City Plus VIDYA ) Passage - 2 Cynthia was a shy girl. She believed that she was plain and untalented. One day her teacher ordered the entire class to show up for audition for the school play. Cynthia nearly died of fright when she was told that she would have to stand on stage in front of the entire class and deliver dialogues. The mere thought of it made her feel sick. But a remarkable transformation occurred during the audition. A thin, shy girl, her knees quaking, her stomach churning in terror, began to stun everyone with her excellent performance. Her bored classmates suddenly stopped their noisy chat to stare at her slender figure on the stage. At the end of her audition, the entire room erupted in thunderous applause. 41. Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage because a) she felt her classmates may laugh at her. b) her stomach was churning. c) she lacked self-confidence. d) she did not like school plays. 42. Cynthia's classmates were chatting because a) it was their turn to act next. b) they were bored of the performances. c) Cynthia did not act well. d) the teacher had no control over them. 43. Cynthia's knees were quaking because a) she felt nervous and shy. b) the teacher scolded her. c) she was very thin and weak. d) she was afraid of her classmates. 44. The transformation that occurred during the audition refers to a) the nervousness of Cynthia. b) the eruption of the entire room in thunderous applause. c) the surprise on the faces of her classmates. d) the stunning performance of Cynthia. 45. If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month? a) Monday b) Tuesday c) Wednesday d) Friday 46. For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5 each, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total amount received? a) Rs.900 b) Rs.1,540 c) Rs.1,610 d) Rs.2,000 Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the passage given below and answer the items that follow. A, B, C, D, E, F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family. 47. What is the profession of B? a) Judge b) Lawyer c) Draughtsman d) Cannot be determined 48. Which of the following is/are a couple/couples? a) AD only b) BC only c) Both AD and BC d) Both AC and BD 49. What is the profession of D? a) Judge b) Stenographer c) Doctor d) Cannot be determined Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage -1 Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity. 50. The apologists of the "Free Market System", according to the passage, believe in a) market without control by government authorities. b) market without protection by the government. c) ability of market to self correct. d) market for free goods and services. 51. With reference to "ideological bias", the passage implies that a) free market is fair but not competent. b) free market is not fair but competent. c) free market is fair and competent. d) free market is neither fair nor biased. 52. "The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest" from the passage 1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism. 2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market. 3. shows the benevolent face of capitalism. 4. ignores resultant gross inequity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 4 only Passage - 2 Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in triggering India's industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of the public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector. What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for the public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution - government as the umpire and the private sector as the players is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the tax payer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action. 53. According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector? 1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process. 2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily. 3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding. 4. Effective competition policies are available now. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context? a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 54. According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why? a) Rural development work is the domain of government only. b) Private sector cannot have monetary gains in this. c) Government takes money from tax payers and hence it is the responsibility of government only. d) Private sector need not have any social responsibility. 55. The portfolio composition of the government refers to a) Public sector assets quality. b) Investment in liquid assets. c) Mix of government investment in different industrial sectors. d) Buying Return on Investment yielding capital assets. 56. The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because a) Govt. prescribes norms for a fair play by the private sector. b) Government is the ultimate in policy formulation. c) Government has no control over private sector players. d) None of the above statements is correct in this context 57. A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H. The first four belong to the medieval period while the rest are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year's paper is most likely to contain a question on a) C b) E c) F d) H 58. In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist ? a) Jalaja b) Pooja c) Shailaja d) Tanuja 59. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N? a) 7 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6 60. The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement? a) It is better to join the army. b) The relationship is fortuitous. c) Quality of Life Index is very high within the armed forces. d) The groups cannot be compared due to their heterogeneity. 61. Given the statement: "Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks cause fewer accidents than buses", which of the following conclusions can we draw? a) There are more buses on the road than trucks. b) Car drivers are more careful than bus drivers. c) Truck drivers are more skilled than either car or bus drivers. d) None of the above 62. "If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society's level of political development." In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that a) political leadership is not an effective instrument. b) military fills in political vacuum. c) military intervention is inevitable for development. d) None of the above 63. Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maximum amount of money? a) Alok b) Bhupesh c) Chander d) Dinesh 64. Examine the following statements: 1. George attends Music classes on Monday. 2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday. 3. His Literature classes are not on Friday. 4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes. 5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes. If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on a) Monday b) Thursday c) Saturday d) Friday 65. In a row 'A' is in the 11th position from the left and 'B' is in the 10th position from the right. If 'A' and 'B' interchange, then 'A' becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than 'A' and 'B'? a) 27 b) 26 c) 25 d) 24 66. Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is a) 60 b) 13 c) 17 d) 7 67. Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160 km. They start at the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30 km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at a) 10:10 AM b) 10: 30 AM c) 11: 10 AM d) 11:20 AM Directions for the following 6 (six) items : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage -1 Climate change poses potentially devastating effects on India's agriculture. While the overall parameters of climate change are increasingly accepted - a 1°C average temperature increase over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than 10 cm in the same period, and regional monsoon variations and corresponding droughts - the impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. Some crops may respond favourably to the changing conditions, others may not. This emphasizes the need to promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations. The key ingredient for "drought proofing" is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the locations where these crops are grown, in response to temperature changes as well as to water availability. The latter will be a key factor in making long term investment decisions. For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is predicted to increase over the next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions. India needs to make long term investment in research and development in agriculture. India is likely to experience changed weather patterns in future. 68. Consider the following statements: Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to 1. melting of glaciers. 2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations. 3. poor productivity of crops. 4. wider adaptability of crop plants. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 69. According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India? a) To predict variations in monsoon patterns and to manage water resources b) To make long term investment decisions for economic growth c) To facilitate wider adaptability of crops d) To predict drought conditions and to recharge aquifers Passage - 2 It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is now, therefore, imperative for a country like India treating the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would require lifestyles to change appropriately also. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about, such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein.^ The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impacts that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy security and greater employment. 70. According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases? 1. Reducing the consumption of meat 2. Rapid economic liberalization 3. Reducing the consumerism 4. Modem management practices of livestock Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only 71. Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily? 1. Inadequate technological development 2. Inadequate funds for research and development 3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 72. According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us? 1. Reduces expenditure on public health 2. Reduces dependence on livestock 3. Reduces energy requirements 4. Reduces rate of global climate change Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4 only 73. What is the essential message of the passage? a) We continue to depend on fossil fuels heavily b) Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is imperative c) We must invest in research and development d) People must change their lifestyle 74. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English? a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively 75. A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden a) has increased by 20%. b) has increased by 12%. c) has increased by 8%. d) is exactly the same as the old area. 76. Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Books A, B and C are law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers ? a) B and C b) E and F c) C and E d) C and F 77. A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at a distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points? a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16 78. If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other a) he makes no profit and no loss. b) he makes a profit of 1%. c) he suffers a loss of 1%. d) he suffers a loss of 2%. 79. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone? a) 45 b) 44 c) 38 d) 30 80. Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number '1' marked on one side and number '2' marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number '1' is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number '2' on the upper side? a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) This cannot be achieved -
ఎస్బిఐ క్లర్క్స్ 2014 మోడల్‌ పేపర్
Directions (Q 151-155): In the following questions, the symbols $,@ ©, % and * and used with the following meaning as illustrated below: P $ Q means "P is not smaller than Q" P @ Q means "P is not greater than Q" P © Q means "P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q" P % Q means "P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q" P * Q means "P is neither greater than nor equal to Q" Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true. Give answer 1) If only Conclusion I is true. 2) If only Conclusion II is true.. 3) If either Conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both Conclusions I and II are true. 151. Statements: K @ B, B * J, J©T Conclusions: I) K * T II) B @T 152. Statements: F$M, M@L, L*W Conclusions: I) W$M II) F@L 153. Statements: R * Q, Q @ F, F % A Conclusions: I) R©A II) R*F 154. Statements: V $X, X © Y, Y % H Conclusions: I) Y@ V II) H * V 155. Statements: M@ B, B * A, A@F Conclusions: I) M*A II) B * F Directions (Q.156-160): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer 1) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 156. On which day was Yasir born? (His date of birth is February 29.) I) He was born between year 2005 and 2011. II) He will complete 4 years on 2012 February 29. 157. Out of 64 students 38 play both chess and cricket. How many students play only chess? I) Out of 64 students 22 students don't play any game. 4 students play only cricket. II) Out of 64 students 20 are girls and 10 of them don't play any game. 158. What is the total number of students in the school? I) The ratio of girls to boys is 2:3. II) The number of students has grown by 5% this year as compared to 4% last year from the number 2000, which it was year before last. 159. Who among the six of them is the tallest if Geetha is taller than Shilpa and Deepa is taller than Meeta? (Sunita and Sadhana are the other two). I) Sadhana is taller than Sunita. II) Sadhana is taller than Shilpa and Meeta as well as Deepa. 160. On which date is Amit's birthday in September 2010? I) Last year his birthday was on the last Thursday of the month of September. II) This year (2010) his birthday will be on the last Friday of the month of September. 161. Which one of the following is different from other three? 1) MAC Address 2) Hardware Address 3) Physical Address 4) IP Address 5) None of these 162. dentify the IP address from the following: 1) 300.215.317.3 2) 302.215@417.5 3) 202.50.20.148 4) 202-50-20-148 5) 101.50. 2 0.148 163. Which one of the following is not a/an image/ graphic file format? 1) PNG 2) GIF 3) BMP 4) GUI 5) None of these 164. Which of the following comm- and is used to set the task priority in UNIX? 1) init 2) nice 3) PS 4) Kill 5) Loss 165. ____ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer. 1) SMTP 2) POP 3) FTP 4) MAIL 5) None of these 166. Which of the following is not a CPU trade name? 1) Intel 2) Dell 3) AMD 4) Cyrix 5) All of the above 167. The idea of stored-program concept was revealed by: 1) Pascal 2) Babbage 3) Neumann 4) Bill gates 5) James 168. Memories which can be read only are called ____ memories. 1) RAM 2) Secondary Memory 3) EERAM 4) Dynamic Memories 5) ROM 169. In a client/ server model, a client program ___ 1) asks for information 2)provides information and files 3)serves software files to other computers 4)distributes data files to other computers 5) All of the above 170. Dot-matrix, DeskJet, Inkjet and Laser.. these all are which type of computer peripherals? 1) Keyboards 2) Software 3) Monitors 4) Hardware 5) Printers 171. Which layer of OSI reference model uses the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)? 1) MAC Layer 2) Data link layer 3) Transport layer 4) Application layer 5) Network layer 172. What is the meaning of 'Hibernate' in Windows XP/ Windows 7? 1) Restart the computers in safe mode 2) Restart the computers in nor- mal mode 3) Shutdown the computer termi- nating all the running appli- cations 4) Shutdown the computer with- out closing the running appli- cations 5) None of these 173. Decisions or Conditions in flowchart is represented by ____. 1) Diamond 2) Parallelogram 3) Rectangle 4) Circle 5) All of the above 174. ____ is technology that allows someone to turn on a network computer remotely by sending a special data packet. 1) WAN 2) WHOL 3) WOL 4)Windows Mesh 5) None of these 175. Which of the following memory allocation scheme suffers from external fragmentation? 1) Segmentation 2) Pure demand paging 3) Swapping 4) Paging 5) None of these 176. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an ____ 1) Compiler 2) Simulator 3) Translator 4) Interpreter 5) Assembler 177. Mnemonic codes and variable name are used in a/ an ___ 1) Machine language 2) Assembly language 3) High level language 4) All of the above 5) None of the above 178. CGI stands for: 1) Common Graphics Interface 2) Common Gateway Interch- ange 3) Common Gateway Interface 4) Computer Gateway Interface 5) None of these 179. If user is not able to see the image on the web page, the text that is displayed in place of the image, is specified by which of the following attributes in HTML? 1) ALTERNATE 2) ALTLINK 3) ALT_TEXYT 4) ALT 5) None of these 180. Which one of the following is different from other three? 1) Google 2) Windows 3) Linux 4) Mac 5) None of these 181. HNI stands for: 1) Highly Negative Individual 2) High Neutral Individual 3) Highly Necessary Individual 4) High Net worth Individual 5) All of the above (Continued in next page ..) 182. Consumer information sources are: 1) Public source 2) Personal source and commercial source 3) Experiential source 4) Only a and b 5) None of the above 183. Which of the following is not a tool for Marketing Planning Appraisal? 1) External appraisal 2) Internal appraisal 3) PCOT analysis 4) Gap analysis 5) SWOT analysis 184. McDonalds and KFC are good examples of ___ 1) Merchants 2) Distributors 3) Retailers 4) Franchising 5) None of the above 185. Service and Manufactured and consumed simultaneously, they can't be stored either prior to or after the service encounter. This is referred as ___ 1) Inseparability 2) Perishability 3) Lack of Ownership 4) Intangibility 5) None of the above 186. Diversification means? 1)Marketing in diverse countries 2) Making new, diverse products 3) Marketing in diverse companies 4) Using only for transactions with foreign countries 5) All of the above 187. Which of the following refers to the unauthorized sale of new, branded products diverted from authorized distribution channels or imported into a country for sale without the consent or knowledge of the manufacturer? 1) Stealth marketing 2) Niche distribution 3) Grey marketing 4) Authorized distribution 5) None of the above 188. This is a characteristic of service, one that refers to their instantaneous Production and Consumption? 1) Perishability 2) Intangibility 3) Variability 4) Inseparability 5) None of the above 189. A successful "Blue ocean strategy" requires: 1) Effective communication skills 2) Motivation 3) Innovative skills 4) All of the above 5) None of the above 190. Which of the following is not an element of Marketing Commun- ication Planning Frame Work (MCPF)? 1) Mission 2) Context analysis 3) Resource 4) Feedback 5) None of these 191. _____ is content that is created by general users, not producers, although this begs the question about who is the producer. 1) PR-generated content\ 2) Organization - generated content 3) User-generated content 4) Customer-generated content 5) None of these 192. Which of the following gives added value to products in an attempt to augment their produ- cts with values and associations that are recognized by and are meaningful to their customers? 1) Promotion 2) Brand 3) Product 4) Price 5) None of these 193. The ___ consists of the physical good or delivered service that provides the expected benefit. It consists of many factors, for example the features and capa- bilities, the durability, design, packaging and brand name. 1) Core products 2) Embodied products 3) Augmented products 4) Premium products 5) None of the above 194. Which of the following is a term used to refer to the process when a successful brand is used to launch a new product into a new market? 1) Brand leader 2) Brand follower 3) Brand equity 4) Brand extension 5) None of the above 195. Which of the following firms has often followed a market chal- lenger (second-mover) strategy? 1) Apple computer 2) EBay 3) Sainsbury's 4) Amazon.com 5) None of the above 196. SWOT is an acronym for: 1) Strategy, Working, Opinion, Tactical 2) Strengths, Weaknesses, Oppo- rtunities, Threats 3) Strategy, Work, Openness, Toughness 4) Strategy, Weakness, Opin- ions, Tactics 5) None of the above 197. In SWOT analysis, situations where organizations are able to convert weaknesses into stren- gths and threats into opportun- ities are called: 1) Strategic windows 2) Strategic leverage 3) Conversion strategies 4) Vulnerability 5) None of the above 198. Which of the following is something that at some time in the future may destabilize and/or reduce the potential performance of the organization? 1) Threat 2) Strength 3) Weakness 4) Opportunities 5) None of the above 199. Which technique is used to collect data that has been previo usly collected for a purpose other than the current research situation? 1) Secondary research 2) Primary research 3) Desk research 4) Secondary research and desk research 5) None of the above 200. The purchasing department reorders on a routine basis, very often working from an approved list of suppliers. This is referred to as: 1) Straight rebuy 2) New task 3) Modified rebury 4) routine buying 5) None of the above Key 151) 1; 152) 4; 153) 2; 154) 5; 155) 5; 156) 3; 157) 1; 158) 2; 159) 4; 160) 3; 161) 4; 162) 3; 163) 4; 164) 2; 165) 2; 166) 2; 167) 3; 168) 5; 169) 1; 170) 5; 171) 5; 172) 4; 173) 1; 174) 3; 175) 1; 176) 4; 177) 1; 178) 3; 179) 4; 180) 1; 181) 4; 182) 4; 183) 3; 184) 4; 185) 2; 186) 2; 187) 3; 188) 4; 189) 4; 190) 1; 191) 3; 192) 2; 193) 2; 194) 4; 195) 3; 196) 2; 197) 3; 198) 1; 199) 1; 200) 1. -
ఎస్బిఐ క్లర్క్స్ 2014 మోడల్‌ పేపర్
REASONING ABILITY 121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BEHA- VIOUR each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 122. How many such digits are there in the number 764528 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 123. What should come next in the letter series given below? ABABCABCDABCDE ABCDEFABCDEFGABC 1) D 2) E 3) F 4) H 5) None 124. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EPRY using each letter only once in each word? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 125. J. D. L. H and F each travelling to station, each one reaches at a different time. L reaches only after J and D reaches only before F. Who among them is third to reach? 1) F 2) L 3) D 4) Can't be determined 5) None 126. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) 21 2) 35 3) 42 4) 56 5) 49 127. In a certain code ALIVE is written as WFHBM. How is VALUE written in that code? 1) VFMWB 2) VFKWB 3) WBAVF 4) WBKVF 5) None 128. The letters in the word DANGEROUS are changed in such a way that the consonants are replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and the vowels are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the third letter from the left end of the new set of letters? 1) B 2) M 3) O 4) L 5) None 129. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) Table 2) Desk 3) Wardrobe 4) Computer 5) Chair 130. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) Orange 2) Apple 3) Guava 4) Papaya 5) Mango Directions (Q. 131-135): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: 1) If only Conclusion I follows. 2) If only Conclusion II follows. 3) If either Conclusion I or II follows. 4) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows. 5) If both Conclusions I and II follow. 131. Statements: Some doors are windows. All windows are floors. All floors are ceilings. Conclusions: I. Some doors are floors. II. All windows are ceilings. 132. Statements: Some computers are books. Some books are pens. All pens are notebooks. Conclusions: I. Some books are notebooks. II. Some notebooks are computers. 133. Statements: All fruits are flowers. No flower is sweet. Some sweets are desserts. Conclusions: I. Some desserts are flowers. II. No dessert is flower. 134. Statements: All bottles are jars. Some jars are bowls. Some bowls are buckets. Conclusions: I. Some bottles are bowls. II. Some buckets are jars. 135. Statements: Some shoes are socks. All socks are sandals. All sandals are trousers. Conclusions: I. All trousers are socks. II. Some sandals are shoes. Directions (136-140): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: HT7LE$2Y#W4IF@V3A 8%K1M©5GU6C 136. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement? 1) # 2) W 3) Y 4) K 5) None 137. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a symbol? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 138. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) H E 7 2) 2 4 # 3) K 5 M 4) 3 K 8 5) F V A 139. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 140. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? T 7 E Y #4 @ V A 1) KM© 2) %KM 3)% 1M 4) K1 © 5) None Directions (Q.141-145): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: M, D, J, Q, T, F, H and N are sitting around a circle facing at the center. T is third to the right of F who is second to the left of M. Q is not a neighbor of T or F and is third to the left of H. J is second to the right of N. 141. Who is second to the left of H ? 1) T 2) F 3) Q 4) Data inadequate 5) None 142. Who is to the immediate left of M? 1) H 2) T 3) Q 4) J 5) None 143. In which of the following pairs the second person is to the immediate left of the first person? 1) MT 2) NQ 3) HF 4) DN 5) None 144. What is Q's position with respect to M? I. Fourth to the right II. Fourth to the left III. Fifth to the left IV. Fifth to the right 1) I only 2) II only 3) Either III or IV 4) I and II only 5) None 145. Who is second to the right of T? 1) M 2) H 3) Q 4) Data inadequate 5) None Directions (Q.146-150): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/ symbols numbered (1), (2). (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combi-nations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5). i.e., None as the answer. Conditions: I) If both the first and the last letters of the group are vowels, their codes are to be interchanged. II) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded by the code for the consonant. 146. JQGALI 1) 32#893 2) 52#893 3) 52#895 4) 32#895 5) None 147. EBHRMT 1) %@$ 16© 2) %$@ 16© 3) 6$@1©% 4) ©$@ 16% 5) None 148. IGCHRE 1) %#*@13 2) 3#*® 1% 3) 3#*@ 13 4) %# *@% 5) None 149. BQRLHA 1) $219@8 2) 8219@$ 3) 8219@8 4) $219@$ 5) None 150. QRLGHM 1) 219#@2 2) 619#@6 3) 619#@2 4) 619@#2 5) None 121) 3; 122) 2; 123) 1; 124) 3; 125) 5; 126) 5; 127) 2; 128) 2; 129) 4; 130) 5; 131) 5; 132) 1; 133) 3; 134) 4; 135) 2; 136) 1; 137) 3; 138) 5; 139) 3; 140) 4; 141) 5; 142) 1; 143) 3; 144) 4; 145) 5; 146) 3; 147) 2; 148) 1; 149) 4; 150) 5.
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