(Continuation to yesterday's City Plus VIDYA )
 Passage - 2
 Cynthia was a shy girl. She believed that she was plain and untalented. One day her teacher ordered the entire class to show up for audition for the school play. Cynthia nearly died of fright when she was told that she would have to stand on stage in front of the entire class and deliver dialogues. The mere thought of it made her feel sick. But a remarkable transformation occurred during the audition. A thin, shy girl, her knees quaking, her stomach churning in terror, began to stun everyone with her excellent performance. Her bored classmates suddenly stopped their noisy chat to stare at her slender figure on the stage. At the end of her audition, the entire room erupted in thunderous applause.
 41.    Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage because
     a) she felt her classmates may laugh at her.
     b) her stomach was churning.
     c) she lacked self-confidence.
     d) she did not like school plays.
 42.    Cynthia's classmates were chatting because
     a) it was their turn to act next.
     b) they were bored of the performances.
     c) Cynthia did not act well.
     d) the teacher had no control over them.
 43.    Cynthia's knees were quaking because
     a) she felt nervous and shy.
     b) the teacher scolded her.
     c) she was very thin and weak.
     d) she was afraid of her classmates.
 44.    The transformation that occurred during the audition refers to
     a) the nervousness of Cynthia.
     b) the eruption of the entire room in thunderous applause.
     c) the surprise on the faces of her classmates.
     d) the stunning performance of Cynthia.
 45.    If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month?
     a) Monday    b) Tuesday
     c) Wednesday    d) Friday
 46.    For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5 each, one-third at the rate of  Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total amount received?
     a) Rs.900    b) Rs.1,540
     c) Rs.1,610    d) Rs.2,000
 Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
 Read the passage given below and answer the items that follow.
 A, B, C, D, E, F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family.
 47.    What is the profession of B?
     a) Judge    b) Lawyer
     c) Draughtsman
     d) Cannot be determined
 48.    Which of the following is/are a couple/couples?
     a) AD only    b) BC only
     c) Both AD and BC
     d) Both AC and BD
 49.    What is the profession of D?
     a) Judge    b) Stenographer
     c) Doctor  d) Cannot be determined
 Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:
 Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
 Passage -1
 Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip.
 Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest.
 Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity.
 50.    The apologists of the "Free Market System", according to the passage, believe in
     a)    market without control by government authorities.
     b)    market without protection by the government.
     c)    ability of market to self correct.
     d)    market for free goods and
         services.
 51.    With reference to "ideological bias", the passage implies that
     a)    free market is fair but not competent.
     b)    free market is not fair but competent.
     c)    free market is fair and competent.
     d)    free market is neither fair nor biased.
 52.    "The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest" from the passage
     1.    refers to the false ideology of capitalism.
     2.    underlies the righteous claims of the free market.
     3.    shows the benevolent face of capitalism.
     4.    ignores resultant gross inequity.
 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
     a) 1 only    b) 2 and 3
     c) 1 and 4    d) 4 only
 Passage - 2
 Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in triggering India's industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of the public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector.
 What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for the public sector assets.
 Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best.
 Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution - government as the umpire and the private sector as the players is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the tax payer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action.
 53.    According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector?
     1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process.
     2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily.
     3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding.
     4. Effective competition policies are available now.
     Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context?
     a) 1 and 3 only       b) 2 only
     c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 54.    According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why?
     a) Rural development work is the domain of government only.
     b) Private sector cannot have monetary gains in this.
     c) Government takes money from tax payers and hence it is the responsibility of government only.
     d) Private sector need not have any social responsibility.
 55.    The portfolio composition of the government refers to
     a) Public sector assets quality.
     b) Investment in liquid assets.
     c) Mix of government investment in different industrial sectors.
     d) Buying Return on Investment yielding capital assets.
 56.    The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because
     a) Govt. prescribes norms for a fair play by the private sector.
     b) Government is the ultimate in policy formulation.
     c) Government has no control over private sector players.
     d) None of the above statements is correct in this context
 57.    A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H. The first four belong to the medieval period while the rest are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year's paper is most likely to contain a question on
     a) C     b) E    c) F    d) H
 58.    In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists.
     If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist ?
     a) Jalaja     b) Pooja
     c) Shailaja    d) Tanuja
 59.    The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P.
     The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?
     a) 7    b) 5    c) 4    d) 6
 60.    The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?
     a) It is better to join the army.
     b) The relationship is fortuitous.
     c) Quality of Life Index is very high within the armed forces.
     d) The groups cannot be compared due to their heterogeneity.
 61.    Given the statement: "Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks cause fewer accidents than buses", which of the following conclusions can we draw?
     a) There are more buses on the road than trucks.
     b) Car drivers are more careful than bus drivers.
     c) Truck drivers are more skilled than either car or bus drivers.
     d) None of the above
 62.    "If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society's level of political development."
     In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that
     a) political leadership is not an effective instrument.
     b) military fills in political vacuum.
     c) military intervention is inevitable for development.
     d) None of the above
 63.    Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maximum amount of money?
     a) Alok    b) Bhupesh
     c) Chander    d) Dinesh
 64.    Examine the following statements:
     1. George attends Music classes on Monday.
     2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.
     3. His Literature classes are not on Friday.
     4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes.
     5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.
     If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on
     a) Monday    b) Thursday
     c) Saturday    d) Friday
 65.    In a row 'A' is in the 11th position from the left and 'B' is in the 10th position from the right. If 'A' and 'B' interchange, then 'A' becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than 'A' and 'B'?
     a) 27     b) 26     c) 25     d) 24
 66.    Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is
     a) 60      b) 13      c) 17     d) 7
 67.    Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160 km. They start at the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30 km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at
     a) 10:10 AM    b) 10: 30 AM
     c) 11: 10 AM    d) 11:20 AM
 Directions for the following
 6 (six) items :
 Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
 Passage -1
 Climate change poses potentially devastating effects on India's agriculture. While the overall parameters of climate change are increasingly accepted - a 1°C average temperature increase over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than 10 cm in the same period, and regional monsoon variations and corresponding droughts - the impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. Some crops may respond favourably to the changing conditions, others may not. This emphasizes the need to promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations.
 The key ingredient for "drought proofing" is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the locations where these crops are grown, in response to temperature changes as well as to water availability. The latter will be a key factor in making long term investment decisions.
 For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is predicted to increase over the next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions.
 India needs to make long term investment in research and development in agriculture. India is likely to experience changed weather patterns in future.
 68.    Consider the following statements:
     Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to
     1. melting of glaciers.
     2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations.
     3. poor productivity of crops.
     4. wider adaptability of crop plants.
 Which of the statements given above are correct?
     a) 1, 2 and 3    b) 2 and 3 only
     c) 1 and 4 only    d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 69.    According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India?
     a) To predict variations in monsoon patterns and to manage water resources
     b) To make long term investment decisions for economic growth
     c) To facilitate wider adaptability of crops
     d) To predict drought conditions and to recharge aquifers
 Passage - 2
 It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is now, therefore, imperative for a country like India treating the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources.
 One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would require lifestyles to change appropriately also. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about, such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein.^ The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impacts that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy security and greater employment.
 70.    According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases?
     1. Reducing the consumption of meat
     2. Rapid economic liberalization
     3. Reducing the consumerism
     4. Modem management practices of livestock
     Select the correct answer using the code given below
     a) 1, 2 and 3    b) 2, 3 and 4
     c) 1 and 3 only    d) 2 and 4 only
 71.    Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily?
     1. Inadequate technological development
     2. Inadequate funds for research and development
     3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
     a) 1 only    b) 2 and 3 only
     c) 1 and 3 only    d) 1, 2 and 3
 72.    According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us?
     1. Reduces expenditure on public health
     2. Reduces dependence on livestock
     3. Reduces energy requirements
     4. Reduces rate of global climate change
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
     a) 1, 2 and 3    b) 1, 3 and 4
     c) 2, 3 and 4    d) 1 and 4 only
 73.    What is the essential message of the passage?
     a) We continue to depend on fossil fuels heavily
     b) Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is imperative
     c) We must invest in research and development
     d) People must change their lifestyle
 74.    There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
     a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively
     b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
     c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
     d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively
 75.    A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden
     a) has increased by 20%.
     b) has increased by 12%.
     c) has increased by 8%.
     d) is exactly the same as the old area.
 76.    Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Books A, B and C are law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers ?
     a) B and C    b) E and F
     c) C and E    d) C and F
 77.    A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at a distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points?
     a) 10   b) 12   c) 14   d) 16
 78.    If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other
     a) he makes no profit and no loss.
     b) he makes a profit of 1%.
     c) he suffers a loss of 1%.
     d) he suffers a loss of 2%.
 79.    Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
     a) 45   b) 44   c) 38   d) 30
 80.    Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number '1' marked on one side and number '2' marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number '1' is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number '2' on the upper side?
     a) 3     b) 5     c) 7
     d) This cannot be achieved


 1.    Identify the correct sequence in which the following Deputy Prime Ministers were appointed in India?
      i) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
      ii) Ch. Devi Lal
      iii) Ch. Charan Singh    iv) Morarji Desai
      a) i, ii, iv, ii    b) i, iv, ii, iii
      c) iv, i, ii, iii    d) i, iv, iii, ii
 
  2.    Who of the following constituted an oligarchy within the Constituent Assembly of India?
      a)    Nehru, Patel, Prasad, Azad
      b)    Ambedkar, B.N.Rao, K.M.Munshi, Nehru
      c)    Patel, Azad, Munshi, Ambedkar
      d)    Krishnamachari, Pannikar, Nehru, Patel
 
  3.    In order to ensure free and fair elections and to conduct all elections to the Panchayats, the power is vested with
      a) Chief Election Commissioner of India
      b) Chief Minister of the State
      c) State Election Commission
      d) Chief Secretary of the State
 
  4.    Assertion (A): The President of India is the Constitutional Head of the State
      Reason (R): All powers are vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
      a)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
      b)    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
      c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false
      d)    (A) is false, but (R) is true.
 
  5.    Consider the following statement about the Union Public Service Commission
      i)    President has the authority to decide about the composition of the Commission.
      ii)    President also has the authority to determine the conditions of services of chairman and members of commission
      iii)    President can also determine the ground or circumstances over which the chairman and members of commission can be removed
      Which among the above is/are not correct?
      a) i and ii only    b) iii only
      c) i only        d) ii only
 
  6.    Consider the following statements about the recently notified 14th Finance Commission and select the correct answer.
      i)    14th Finance Commission will be headed by Y.V.Reddy and will have three fulltime members
      ii)    The commission will devise a formula for sharing of taxes and grants bet-ween the Centre and States for a five year period from April 1, 2015 to 2020
      iii)    Term of reference of commission includes recommending measures to generate revenue surpluses for capital investment as well as potential for additional resource mobilization to improve the tax to GDP ratio.
      iv)    It will also look into the impact of the proposed goods and service tax and suggest a mechanism to compensate for any revenue loss.
      a) i, ii and iii    b) ii, iii and iv
      c) i, iii and iv    d) All of the above
 
  7.    Which of the following is not a part of the mandate for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
      a)    To inquire into Specific complaints re-lating to rights and safeguards of SCs.
      b)    To take action against the perpetrators of violation of the rights and safeguards of the SCs.
      c)    To participate and advise in the planning process relating to the socio-economic development of the SCs
      d)    To submit an annual report to the President on these matters.
 
  8.    A Bill becomes an Act after being duly passed by both the houses of Parliament and given an assent by the President. According to the Indian Constitution the President has the veto power over the
      Bills passed by the Parliament.
      Match the following.
      List A (Veto Powers)
          A. Absolute Veto
          B. Suspensive veto
          C. Pocket veto
      List B (Provisions)
      I.    President returns the Bill or part of it for the reconsideration
      II.    President is withholding the assent to a Bill.
      III.    President is not taking any action for an indefinite time.
      a) A-II, B-I, C-III    b) A-I, B-II, C-III
      c) A-II, B-III, C-I    d) A-I, B-III, C-II
 
  9.    Consider the following statements regarding the formation of new state or altering the boundaries of an existing State.
      A.    No Bill for a purpose can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.
      B.    The President shall, before giving his recommendation, refer the bill to the legislative of the state
          which is going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill for expressing its views on the changes.
      C.    The legislative of the state should express its views within the period specified by the President.
      D.    the President is bound by the views of the State Legislature
          Which of the above statement is/are correct?
      a) A, B and C    b) A and B only
      c) B only        d) All of them
 
  10.    In which of the following important matters both the Houses (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha) enjoy equal powers?
      I.    Election and impeachment of the President.
      II.    Election and impeachment of the Vice-President
      III.    Approving the Proclamation of emergency and the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States
      Select the correct answer from below
      a) Only I and II    b) Only I and III
      c) Only II and III    d) All I, II, III
 
  11.    The Council of Ministers and Cabinet are often used interchangeably though there is a definite distinction between them. Which of the following is NOT true about the Council of Ministers?
      I.    The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the Parliament.
      II.    It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
      III.    It is a constitutional body, dealth in detail by the Article 74 and 75 of the Constitution
      IV.    It was inserted in the Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
      Select the correct answer from below
      a) Only I, II, and III    b) Only II and IV
      c) Only I, II and IV    d) All of the above
 
  12.    Which of the following statement is/are correct?
      A.    An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament
      B.    The previous sanction of the President is required for introducing in Parliament any bill for amendment of the Constitution
      C.    In some specific constitutional amendments, the amendment requires to be ratified by the States by resolution to that effect passed by those legislatures before, the Bill is presented to the President for assent.
      a) A and B only    b) A and C only
      c) B and C only    d) All of them
 
  13.    According to the Right to Information Act 2005, there is a provision under which the Act is not applicable to certain organisations specified in the second schedule of the act. These organisations could be...
      a)    Organisations which are very sensitive in nature and are making secret investigations regarding corruption related cases.
      b)    Organisations which have been given the responsibility of getting the trail of Swiss Bank accounts and investigating the FERA cases
      c)    Organisations which are established for intelligence and security work.
      d)    All the above
 
  14.    Consider the following statements
      A.    The Attorney General of India has the right to speak in the House of the Parliament or in any Committee thereof, and also has the right to vote.
      B.    He is entitled to the privileges of a member of a Parliament in the performance of his official duties.
      C.    The Attorney General must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
      Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
      a) A and B only     b) A and C only
      c) B and C only    d) All of them
 
  15.    Consider the following statements
      A)    Women and children
      B)    Socially and educationally backward classes
      C)    SC's and ST's
      D)    physically handicapped
      Protective Discrimination under article 15 of the constitution extends to which of the above classes of persons?
      a) A, C        b) A, B
      c) A, B, C    d) A, B, C, D
 
  16.    According to the Constitution 73rd amendment act, the chairperson of the Panchayat at the intermediate and district level will be
      a)    Directly elected    b) Indirectly elected
      c)    It is left to the decision by the concerned state legislature
      d)    In accordance with the decision of the state government
 
  17.    Consider the following
      1.    National Emergency can be imposed in a part or whole of India.
      2.    National Emergency can be withdrawn from a part of India
      3.    National Emergency can be reimposed even when the country is already in a state of emergency
      4.    National emergency can be approved every 6 months by Parliament as per 44th amendment.
      Which of the above are true with respect to National Emergency?
      a) 1, 3        b) 1, 3, 4
      c) 1, 2, 3        d) 1, 2, 3, 4
 
  18.    Which of the following unique combinations are found in the Indian Constitution?
      A. Parliamentary form of government
      B. Written constitution
      C. Judicial Review
      D. Republic
      a) A, B        b) A, C
      c) A, D         d) All in one
 
  19.    Match the following
      List I        List II
      (Article)        (Feature)
      A) 248    1. State Finance Commission
      B) 243 I    2. Residuary Power of the union
      C) 148    3. Administration of union
          territories
      D) 239    4. Office of CAG
  Codes:
          A     B     C    D
      a)     1     2     4     3
      b)     2     1     3     4
      c)     2     1     4     3
      d)     2     4     3     1
 
  20.    Which one of the following Organization helps the budget division in the process of consolidation of the budget data?
      a) National Sample Survey Organization
      b) Central Statistical Organization
      c) The National Informatics Center
      d) Institute of Media studies
 
  21.    The decline in cash flows of Corporate in recent years could be attributed to
      a)    Sluggish demand conditions
      b)    High input cost
      c)    Delays in collection of receivables after delivery of goods
      d)    All of the above
 
  22.    High inflation in the last few years, particularly food inflation in India has been the result of
      a)    Low import of food grains
      b)    Structural and seasonal factors
      c)    Failure of monsoons
      d)    Decline in the area under food grains
 
  23.    Which one of the following is a reason for reduced trade deficit and Lower Current Account Deficit during 2013-14?
      a)    Demand slow down and restrictions on non-essential imports
      b)    Demand slow down and restrictions on exports
      c)    Demand slow down and restrictions on essential imports
      d)    Demand slow down and removing restrictions on imports
 
  24.    Real GNP per capita in a nation is affected by
      I    The quantity and quality of resources under the nations command
      II    how efficiently the nation uses its res-ources in producing goods and services
      III    the size of the dependent population
      Which of the following is correct?
      a) III only    b) I and II only
      c) I and III only    d) I, II and III
 
  25.    Which of the following is not a basic function of money
      a)    Medium of exchange
      b)    Store of value    c) Unit of account
      d)    Measure of economic status of a country
 
  26.    The term underground economy refers to
      a)    The subway system
      b)    Market activity not reported to the government
      c)    The coal mining industry
      d)    All Ore Mining
 
  27.    Laws, customs, conventions and other institutional elements that sustain an economy fall under the category of
      a) Rules of the game
      b) Human Capital    c) Natural resources
      d) Capital infrastructure
 
  28.    A trend in developing countries is that
      a)    The birth rate furring a typical woman's lifetime has increased from three to six children
      b)    Attitudes toward family size are changing
      c)    As women become better educated, they earn less
      d)    As women become less educated, they tend to have fewer children
 
  29.    Soft budget constraints will lead to
      a)    Quick responses to changes in supply and demand
      b)    Good investment decisions
      c)    Inefficiency    d) High product quality
 
  30.    A problem for developing countries is that the prices of primary products fluctuate more widely than do the prices of finished goods because
      a)    Crop supply changes very little despite the weather
      b)    Crop supply fluctuate with the weather
      c)    Weather never varies
      d)    Crop demand fluctuates with the weather
 
  31.    The yeardstick most often used to compare living standards across nation is
      a) Average production cost per unit
      b) Sales revenue per month
      c) Output per capita    d) Imports per year
 
  32.    The difference between a specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff is that a specific tariff
      a)    Is a set amount of money per unit of a product, while an ad valorem tariff is a set per centage of product price
      b)    Is a set per centage of product price, while an ad valorem tariff is a set amount of money per unit of a product
      c)    Applies only to imports, while an ad valorem tariff applies only to exports
      d)    Sets a strict quota limit on the amount one individual can purchase, while an ad valorem tariff sets no such limit.
 
  33.    To review Tendulkar's methodology on poverty an expert group was set up by the Planning Commission under the chairmanship of
      a) Abhijit Sen    b) Rangarajan
      c) Padmanabhan    d) Y.V.Reddy
 
  34.    Which of the following is not classified as a service in the current account?
      a)    Transportation
      b)    Tourist expenditures
      c)    Income earned from foreign investments
      d)    Unilateral transfers
 
  35.    Which one of the following is not true?
      a)    An exchange rate is the price of one currency in terms of another
      b)    An exchange rate is the means by which the price of a good in one country is translated into the price to the buyer in another country
      c)    The exchange rate will affect the willingness of the foreign buyers and sellers to trade with each other
      d)    The exchange rate is the price of a currency in terms of another currency for exchanges of goods and services but not for financial transactions
 
  36.    RuPay has been developed by
      a)    Reserve Bank of India
      b)    National Payment Corporation Limited
      c)    Public Accounts Committee
      d)    The Comptroller and Auditor General
 
  37.    Which of the following group was declared as most valuable brand in 2014 by Brand Finance Global 500?
      a) Reliance Group    b) Adani Group
      c) Tata Group    d) GMR group
 
  38.    Which one of the following is called 'Pearl of the Antilles'?
      a)    Rowlatt act
      b)    Formation of Swaraj Party
      c)    Fast unto death by Mahatma Gandhi
      d)    Formation of Home Rule League by Tilak
 
  39.    Arrange the following Governor General in ascending order of their period?
      I)    Marques of Hastings
      II)    Lord Cornwallis
      III)    George Barlow
      IV)    Lord Amherst
      a) II, III, I, IV    b) I, II, IV, III
      c) III, IV, II, I    d) II, I, III, IV
 
  40.    Arrange the following in Chronological order?
      I)    Cripps Mission
      II)    Simon Commission
      III)    Cabinet Mission
      IV)    Wavell Plan
      a) III, II, I, IV    b) II, I, IV, III
      c) II, IV, III, I    d) II, I, III, IV
 
  41.    William Bentinck annexed following states. Arrange them in ascending order with respect to the years of their annexation?
      I) Cachar        II) Coorg
      III) Jaintia    IV) Mysore
      a) 4, 1, 2, 3    b) 4, 2, 1, 3
      c) 2, 1, 4, 3    d) 1, 2, 3, 4
 
  42.    Which one is wrong about Amir Khusrow?
      a)    He was nicknamed as the 'Parrot of India'
      b)    He wrote the 'Tughlqnama'
      c)    He created a new style of Persian which came to be called the ' Sabak-i-Hindi' or the style of India
      d)    He was the court poet of Balban
 
  43.    The Graeco-Roman merchants visiting South India during Sangam Age were referred to in the Tamil literature as?
      a) Romans    b) Yavanas
      c) Videshes
      d) None of the above
 
  44.    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer from the codes given below
      List-I
          I) Purna Kassapa
          II) Gosala Maskariputra
          III) Ajita Kesakambali
          IV) Paduka Katyayana
      List-II
          A) Samkhya School
          B) Ajivika Sampradaya
          C) Charvaka School
          D) Valsheshika School
      a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
      b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
      c) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
      d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
 
  45.    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer from the code given below?
      List-I
      I) Abdur Razzaq
      II) Numiz        III) Marco Polo
      IV) Ibn Battuta    V) Niccolo Conti
      List-II
      A)    An Italian, visited Kakatiya Kingdom during the reign of Rudrama Devi
      B)    An Italian, visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Devaraja II
      C)    Persian, visited Vijayanagar during Devaraja II
      D)    Moroccan, visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Harihara I
      E)    Portuguese, visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Achyutaraya
      a) I-C, II-E, III-A, IV-D, V-B
      b) I-E, II-C, III-D, IV-A, V-A
      c) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C, V-E
      d) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C
 
  46.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists?
      List-I
          I) Udranga    II) Uparika
          III) Visti    IV) Vithi
      List-II
          A) State Official
          B) A type of land tax
          C) Territorial division
          D) Forced labour
          E) Administrative department
      Codes:
      a) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
      b) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
      c) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-E
      d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
 
  47.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists?
      List-I
          I) Langahs    II) Muzaffarid
          III) Jams    IV) Karranis
      List-II
          A) Thattah    B) Gujarat
          C) Multan    D) Bengal
      a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
      b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
      c) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
      d) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
 
  48.    Match the following and select the answer from the code given below?
      I)    Itimad-ud-Daula's Tomb
      II)    Humayun's Tomb
      III)    Akbar's Tomb
      IV)    Tomb of Aurangzeb's Wife
      A)    'Forerunner' of the Tajmahal
      B)    Begining of the use of white marble by the mughals
      C)    Influence of Buddhist Vihara
      D)    Replica of the Taj Mahal
      a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
      b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
      c) I-C, II-D, II-A, IV-B
      d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
 
  49.    Match the following theories and Propounders about the origin of congress, and select the answer from the code given below
      I)    Mysterious origin Theory
      II)    Dufferin's Authorship Theory
      III)    Dufferin's - Hume Conspiracy theory
      IV)    Safety-Valve Theory
          A) Lajpat Rai    B) R.P. Dutta
          C) W.C. Banerjee
          D) Pattabhi Sitarmayya
      a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
      b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
      c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
      d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
 
  50.    Match the following
      List-I
          I) Comrade    II) Al Hilal
          III) The Indian Musalman
          IV) Leader
      List-II
      A) Madan Mohan Malaviya
      B) WW Hunter
      C) Abul Kalam Azad
      D) Maulana Mohammad Ali
      a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
      b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
      c) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
      d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
 
  51.    Consider the following statements in the Context of Dara Shikoh?
      I)    He began as an orthodox but ended up as a liberal sufi
      II)    He had several Sanskrit works translated into persian
      III)    He wrote a biography of Muslim Saints
      a) I, II, and III are correct
      b) I and II are correct
      c) I and III are correct
      d) II and III are correct
 
  52.    Consider the following statements?
      The policy of trade followed by the British government proved ruinous to the Indian economy on account of
      I)    Tough competition from foreign goods
      II)    Enormous increase in imports
      III)    Rise in the prices of raw materials
      IV)    Increased production of cash crops like jute
      a) I, II and IV are correct
      b) I, II and III are correct
      c) II and IV are correct
      d) I, II and IV are correct
 
  53.    Coral Reefs are developed in
      1.    Tropical seas and oceans
      2.    Shallow seas and oceans
      3.    Tropical seas and oceans of high salinity
      a) 1 only    b) 1, 2    c) 2, 3    d) All
 
  54.    Performance of Indian Mansoon is influenced by
      1.    Temperature and pressure changes in Equatorial Indian ocean
      2.    Elnino
      3.    Summer surface Temperatures of Tibetan Plateau
      a) 2 only         b) 1, 2
      c) 2, 3        d) All the above
 
  55.    Identify the correct pair (s)
      1. Yazudis: Northern Iraq
      2. Kurds: Northern Iraq
      3. Tauregs: Iranian Plateau
      a) 1 only    b) 1, 2    c) 2, 3    d) All
 
  56.    Which of the following are not part of Western Ghats ecosystem
      1. Siruveni     2. Silent valley
      3. Valley of flowers
      a) 1 only     b) 1, 2     c) 3 only    d) 1, 3
 
  57.    Match the following
      A. AGPL
      B. Radcliffline
      C. MC Mohan Line
      D. Indira Point
          1. Arunachal Pradesh
          2. Great Nicobar
          3. Gujarath
          4. J&K
          A    B    C    D
      a)    4    3    1    2
      b)    4    3    2    1
      c)    3    4    2    1
      d)    3    4    1    2
 
  58.    Rich reserves of this mineral are concentrated in Eastern Ghats of India. It is known for malleability. It’s processing requires large quantity of Electricity. This description best suites.
      a) Sphalerite    b) Bornite
      c) Bauxite    d) Galena
  59.    Which of the following tree species are not found in Taiga ecosystems.
      1. Pine    2. Fir    3. Spruce    4. Cedar
      a) 1,2    b) 3    c) 3,4    d) None
 
  60.    Identify the areas associated with Nonconventional energy in India from out of the following.
      1. Kalba Devi     2. Pugga Valley
      3. Viznijam
      a) 2 only    b) 3 only    c) 2,3    d) All
 
  61.    Consider the following statements.
      1.    Level of urbanisation of India is less than that of Asian Average.
      2.    Level of urbanisation of India is less than that of African average.
      3.    Level of urbanisation of India is less than that of world average which of the above are correct
      a) 3 only     b) 3, 2    c) All     d) None
 
  62.    Arrange the following Threatened / Endangered species in the North - South direction in order of the location of their Habitat
      1. Lion tailed Macaque
      2. One Horned Rhino
      3. Wild Ass    4. Pine Marten
      a) 4,2,3,1    b) 4,2,1,3    c) 2,4,1,3    d) 2,4,3,1
 
  63.    Which of the following about Thar desert are true.
      1. Dominance of seifs
      2. Occurrence of saline lakes in Bagar.
      3. Formed in the Pleistocene period.
      a) 1 only     b) 1,2    c) 2 only    d) All
 
  64.    Moving away from coal to other fuels is not easy and possible for Indian economy immediately because.
      1.    India’s Coal reserves are huge.
      2.    Indian Coal is of best quality High Grade cooking Variety.
      3.    Oil and Natural Gas reserves are scarce.
      4.    Non conventional energies are not commercialised.
      a) 1, 3     b) 1, 2, 3    c) 1, 3, 4    d) All
 
  65.    Which of the following are the problems of water resources in India.
      1. Inadequacy    2. Inability to store
      3. Pollution
      4. Wastage during use
      a) 1, 2     b) 2, 3, 4    c) 1, 2, 3    d) All    
 
  66.    Gond tribes spread over
      1. Telangana    2. Chattisgarh
      3. Maharashtra     4. Orissa
      a) 1, 2    b) 2, 3    c) 1, 2, 3    d) All
 
  67.    Which of the following crops require water logging
      1. Paddy     2. Sugar Cane     3. Cotton
      a) 1 only      b) 1, 2     c) All     d) None
 
  68.    From which of the following regions, many rivers originate and drain out in different directions.
       a) Nanda Devi peak    b) Siachen glacier
      c) Kailas Ranges     d) Mishmi Ranges
 
  69.    Consider the following statements..
      1.    HIV transmission cannot take place through breast feeding
      2.    HIV is an enveloped and lentivirus
      Which of statements is/are true..
      a) 1 only        b) 2 only
      c) Both 1& 2    d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
  70.    The information system developed on TB patients
      a) Nikshay    b) Indus
      c) Bharosa    d) Nirbhay
 
  71.    The defluoridation technique called Nalgonda Technique was developed by
      a)    Central Electronic Engineering Research Institute
      b)    National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
      c)    Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute
      d)    Indian Institute of Chemical Technology
 
  72.    Match the following
      Reactor site
          A) Chhaya mithivirdi
          B) Bargi    
          C) Jaitapur
          D) Haripur
      State
          1) West Bengal
          2) Gujarat
          3) Madhya Pradesh
          4) Maharashtra
          A    B    C    D
      a)    3    4    2    1
      b)    1    2    3    4
      c)    2    3    1    4
      d)    2    3    4    1
 
  73.    What is slogan of 2014 World TB Day..
      a)    Reach the 3 million: Find, Treat, Cure TB
      b)    Reach the 9 million: Find, Treat, Cure TB
      c)    Raise the voice against TB
      d)    Stop TB
 
  74.    The method of immobility Nuclear Waste in glass matrix
      a) Enrichment    b) Vitrification
      c) annealing    d) matrix ceiling
 
  75.    The effect of radiation on humans is measured in the unit.
      a) millicurie    b) becquerel
      c) millisieverts    d) None of these
 
  76.    Consider the following statements..
      1)    India's Indigenous cryogenic engine was first tested successfully onboard GSLV-D3
      2)    Such cryogenic engine was developed by Liquid Propulsion System Centre. Which of these statements is/are true
      a) only 1        b) only 2
      c) Both 1&2    d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
  77.    Which of these elements is called Brimstone
      a) Fluorine    b) Oxygen
      c) Bromine    d) Sulphur
 
  78.    Which of following animals exhibit bioluminescence
      a) palolo worm    b) Glow worm
      c) noctiluca    d) All of these
 
  79.    The atomic theory was first explained in
      a) samkhya    b) vaiseshika
      c) Nyaya        d) Yoga
 
  80.    The virus responsible for severe birdflu epidemic in China in recent years..
      a) H1N1    b) H5N1    c) H7N9    d) H1N2
 
  81.    Which of the following is a completely aquatic mammal
      a) Walrus    c) Otter    d) Beaver    d) Dugong
 
  82.    Which of the following amphibian male exhibits remarkable parental care behaviour
      a) Rhacophorus    b) Alytes
      c) Tiger salamander    d) Hyla
 
  83.    Which of the following animals show discontinuous distribution..
      a) Flightless birds    b) Lungfish
      c) Marsupials    d) All of these
 
  84.    The reasons for long shelf life of Honey
      a) low water and high sugar content
      b) low sugar and high water content
      c) presence of microbicidal chemicals
      d) presence of antibiotics
 
  85.    Which of the following animal/plant are threat to indigenous biodiversity
      a) Parthenium    b)Lantana
      c) Blue bar pigeon    d) All of these
 
  86.    Which of the following is a non-fissile material
      a) Uranium-238    b) Uranium-235
      c) Uranium-233    d) Plutonium-239
 
  87.    Match the following..
      A) Pyrolusite    1) Lead
      B) Rutile        2) Mercury
      C) Cinnabar    3) Titanium
      D) Galena    4) Manganese
          A    B    C    D
      a)    1    2    3    4
      b)    4    3    2    1
      c)    3    4    1    2
      d)    4    3    1    2
 
  88.    The traditional female sea diver of Japan is called
      a) Ama    b) LIngha    c) Miki    d) Norio
 
  89.    With reference to Kasturirangan committee report on Western Ghats, Cultural landscape is
      a)    landscape not affected by humans
      b)    Landscape inhabited by indigenous tribes
      c)    Landscape afftected by humans
      d)    Landscape outside protected areas
 
  90.    The transitional zone between two ecosystems
      a) Ecozone    b) Ecotone
      c) Ecological Niche
      d) Ecological footprint
 
  91.    The Ecological adaptation in which animals in temperate zones have smaller extremities
      a) Gloger's rule    b) Bergmann's rule
      c) Jordan's rule    d) Allen's rule
 
  92    Out of the 17 megadiversity countries identified India stands
      a) 7th    b) 10th    c) 12th    d) 14th
 
  93.    The biodiversity hotspot "Succulent Karoo' is located in
      a) Africa     b) North America
      c) South America     d) Europe
 
  94.    The state animal of Tamil Nadu
      a) Sambar     b) Gaur
      c) Nilgiri Tahr     d) Blackbuck
 
  95.    Which harmful chemical in packaging materials is affecting human biological system
      a) Diethylhexyl fumarate
      b) Polychlorinated biphenyls
      c) biphenyl
      d) polyaromatic hydrocarbons
 
  96.    The sacred Khecheopalri lake is located at
      a) Mizoram     b) Sikkim
      c) Meghalaya     d) Manipur
 
  97.    The International convention to prevent and control transboundary movement of hazardous substances
      a) Bonn convention
      b) Stockholm convention
      c) Basel convention
      d) Ramsar convention
 
  98.     A very good example of ex-situ conservation
      a) National park     b) sanctuary
      c) Botanical garden
      d) Conservation reserve
 
  99.    India's first Post Office Saving Bank ATM was inaugurated in which of the following city recently
      a) Hyderabad    b) Chennai
      c) Bengaluru    d) New Delhi
 
  100. Which of the following is most likely to happen during a recession?
      a) Decrease in inventory
      b) Producers will be cautiously optimistic
      c) Capacity under utilization
      d) Expansion in bank credit
  
  
  key
      1) d     2) a     3) c     4) c     5) a
      6) d     7) b     8) a     9) a     10) b
      11) a     12) b     13) d     14) d     15) c
      16) c     17) c     18) d     19) a     20) c
      21) d     22) b     23) a     24) b     25) d
      26) b     27) a     28) b     29) c     30) b
      31) d     32) a     33) b     34) d     35) d
      36) b     37) c    38) c     39) a     40) b
      41) a     42) d     43) b     44) a     45) a
      46) b     47) c    48) a     49) d     50) a
      51) d     52) d     53) b     54) d     55) b
      56) c     57) a     58) c     59) d     60) d
      61) c     62) a     63) c     64) c     65) b
      66) c     67) b     68) c    69) c     70) a
      71) b     72) d     73) a     74) b     75) c
      76) b     77) d     78) d     79) b     80) c
      81) d     82) b     83) d     84) a     85) d
      86) a     87) a     88) a    89) c     90) b
      91) d     92) a     93) a     94) c     95) a
      96) b     97) c     98) c     99) b     100) c