సివిల్స్ ప్రిలిమ్స్ పేపర్-1

1.    Identify the correct sequence in which the following Deputy Prime Ministers were appointed in India?
     i) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
     ii) Ch. Devi Lal
     iii) Ch. Charan Singh    iv) Morarji Desai
     a) i, ii, iv, ii    b) i, iv, ii, iii
     c) iv, i, ii, iii    d) i, iv, iii, ii

 2.    Who of the following constituted an oligarchy within the Constituent Assembly of India?
     a)    Nehru, Patel, Prasad, Azad
     b)    Ambedkar, B.N.Rao, K.M.Munshi, Nehru
     c)    Patel, Azad, Munshi, Ambedkar
     d)    Krishnamachari, Pannikar, Nehru, Patel

 3.    In order to ensure free and fair elections and to conduct all elections to the Panchayats, the power is vested with
     a) Chief Election Commissioner of India
     b) Chief Minister of the State
     c) State Election Commission
     d) Chief Secretary of the State

 4.    Assertion (A): The President of India is the Constitutional Head of the State
     Reason (R): All powers are vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
     Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
     a)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
     b)    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
     c)    (A) is true, but (R) is false
     d)    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

 5.    Consider the following statement about the Union Public Service Commission
     i)    President has the authority to decide about the composition of the Commission.
     ii)    President also has the authority to determine the conditions of services of chairman and members of commission
     iii)    President can also determine the ground or circumstances over which the chairman and members of commission can be removed
     Which among the above is/are not correct?
     a) i and ii only    b) iii only
     c) i only        d) ii only

 6.    Consider the following statements about the recently notified 14th Finance Commission and select the correct answer.
     i)    14th Finance Commission will be headed by Y.V.Reddy and will have three fulltime members
     ii)    The commission will devise a formula for sharing of taxes and grants bet-ween the Centre and States for a five year period from April 1, 2015 to 2020
     iii)    Term of reference of commission includes recommending measures to generate revenue surpluses for capital investment as well as potential for additional resource mobilization to improve the tax to GDP ratio.
     iv)    It will also look into the impact of the proposed goods and service tax and suggest a mechanism to compensate for any revenue loss.
     a) i, ii and iii    b) ii, iii and iv
     c) i, iii and iv    d) All of the above

 7.    Which of the following is not a part of the mandate for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
     a)    To inquire into Specific complaints re-lating to rights and safeguards of SCs.
     b)    To take action against the perpetrators of violation of the rights and safeguards of the SCs.
     c)    To participate and advise in the planning process relating to the socio-economic development of the SCs
     d)    To submit an annual report to the President on these matters.

 8.    A Bill becomes an Act after being duly passed by both the houses of Parliament and given an assent by the President. According to the Indian Constitution the President has the veto power over the
     Bills passed by the Parliament.
     Match the following.
     List A (Veto Powers)
         A. Absolute Veto
         B. Suspensive veto
         C. Pocket veto
     List B (Provisions)
     I.    President returns the Bill or part of it for the reconsideration
     II.    President is withholding the assent to a Bill.
     III.    President is not taking any action for an indefinite time.
     a) A-II, B-I, C-III    b) A-I, B-II, C-III
     c) A-II, B-III, C-I    d) A-I, B-III, C-II

 9.    Consider the following statements regarding the formation of new state or altering the boundaries of an existing State.
     A.    No Bill for a purpose can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.
     B.    The President shall, before giving his recommendation, refer the bill to the legislative of the state
         which is going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill for expressing its views on the changes.
     C.    The legislative of the state should express its views within the period specified by the President.
     D.    the President is bound by the views of the State Legislature
         Which of the above statement is/are correct?
     a) A, B and C    b) A and B only
     c) B only        d) All of them

 10.    In which of the following important matters both the Houses (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha) enjoy equal powers?
     I.    Election and impeachment of the President.
     II.    Election and impeachment of the Vice-President
     III.    Approving the Proclamation of emergency and the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States
     Select the correct answer from below
     a) Only I and II    b) Only I and III
     c) Only II and III    d) All I, II, III

 11.    The Council of Ministers and Cabinet are often used interchangeably though there is a definite distinction between them. Which of the following is NOT true about the Council of Ministers?
     I.    The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the Parliament.
     II.    It deals with all major legislative and financial matters
     III.    It is a constitutional body, dealth in detail by the Article 74 and 75 of the Constitution
     IV.    It was inserted in the Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
     Select the correct answer from below
     a) Only I, II, and III    b) Only II and IV
     c) Only I, II and IV    d) All of the above

 12.    Which of the following statement is/are correct?
     A.    An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of the Parliament
     B.    The previous sanction of the President is required for introducing in Parliament any bill for amendment of the Constitution
     C.    In some specific constitutional amendments, the amendment requires to be ratified by the States by resolution to that effect passed by those legislatures before, the Bill is presented to the President for assent.
     a) A and B only    b) A and C only
     c) B and C only    d) All of them

 13.    According to the Right to Information Act 2005, there is a provision under which the Act is not applicable to certain organisations specified in the second schedule of the act. These organisations could be...
     a)    Organisations which are very sensitive in nature and are making secret investigations regarding corruption related cases.
     b)    Organisations which have been given the responsibility of getting the trail of Swiss Bank accounts and investigating the FERA cases
     c)    Organisations which are established for intelligence and security work.
     d)    All the above

 14.    Consider the following statements
     A.    The Attorney General of India has the right to speak in the House of the Parliament or in any Committee thereof, and also has the right to vote.
     B.    He is entitled to the privileges of a member of a Parliament in the performance of his official duties.
     C.    The Attorney General must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
     Which of the above statement is/ are correct?
     a) A and B only     b) A and C only
     c) B and C only    d) All of them

 15.    Consider the following statements
     A)    Women and children
     B)    Socially and educationally backward classes
     C)    SC's and ST's
     D)    physically handicapped
     Protective Discrimination under article 15 of the constitution extends to which of the above classes of persons?
     a) A, C        b) A, B
     c) A, B, C    d) A, B, C, D

 16.    According to the Constitution 73rd amendment act, the chairperson of the Panchayat at the intermediate and district level will be
     a)    Directly elected    b) Indirectly elected
     c)    It is left to the decision by the concerned state legislature
     d)    In accordance with the decision of the state government

 17.    Consider the following
     1.    National Emergency can be imposed in a part or whole of India.
     2.    National Emergency can be withdrawn from a part of India
     3.    National Emergency can be reimposed even when the country is already in a state of emergency
     4.    National emergency can be approved every 6 months by Parliament as per 44th amendment.
     Which of the above are true with respect to National Emergency?
     a) 1, 3        b) 1, 3, 4
     c) 1, 2, 3        d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 18.    Which of the following unique combinations are found in the Indian Constitution?
     A. Parliamentary form of government
     B. Written constitution
     C. Judicial Review
     D. Republic
     a) A, B        b) A, C
     c) A, D         d) All in one

 19.    Match the following
     List I        List II
     (Article)        (Feature)
     A) 248    1. State Finance Commission
     B) 243 I    2. Residuary Power of the union
     C) 148    3. Administration of union
         territories
     D) 239    4. Office of CAG
 Codes:
         A     B     C    D
     a)     1     2     4     3
     b)     2     1     3     4
     c)     2     1     4     3
     d)     2     4     3     1

 20.    Which one of the following Organization helps the budget division in the process of consolidation of the budget data?
     a) National Sample Survey Organization
     b) Central Statistical Organization
     c) The National Informatics Center
     d) Institute of Media studies

 21.    The decline in cash flows of Corporate in recent years could be attributed to
     a)    Sluggish demand conditions
     b)    High input cost
     c)    Delays in collection of receivables after delivery of goods
     d)    All of the above

 22.    High inflation in the last few years, particularly food inflation in India has been the result of
     a)    Low import of food grains
     b)    Structural and seasonal factors
     c)    Failure of monsoons
     d)    Decline in the area under food grains

 23.    Which one of the following is a reason for reduced trade deficit and Lower Current Account Deficit during 2013-14?
     a)    Demand slow down and restrictions on non-essential imports
     b)    Demand slow down and restrictions on exports
     c)    Demand slow down and restrictions on essential imports
     d)    Demand slow down and removing restrictions on imports

 24.    Real GNP per capita in a nation is affected by
     I    The quantity and quality of resources under the nations command
     II    how efficiently the nation uses its res-ources in producing goods and services
     III    the size of the dependent population
     Which of the following is correct?
     a) III only    b) I and II only
     c) I and III only    d) I, II and III

 25.    Which of the following is not a basic function of money
     a)    Medium of exchange
     b)    Store of value    c) Unit of account
     d)    Measure of economic status of a country

 26.    The term underground economy refers to
     a)    The subway system
     b)    Market activity not reported to the government
     c)    The coal mining industry
     d)    All Ore Mining

 27.    Laws, customs, conventions and other institutional elements that sustain an economy fall under the category of
     a) Rules of the game
     b) Human Capital    c) Natural resources
     d) Capital infrastructure

 28.    A trend in developing countries is that
     a)    The birth rate furring a typical woman's lifetime has increased from three to six children
     b)    Attitudes toward family size are changing
     c)    As women become better educated, they earn less
     d)    As women become less educated, they tend to have fewer children

 29.    Soft budget constraints will lead to
     a)    Quick responses to changes in supply and demand
     b)    Good investment decisions
     c)    Inefficiency    d) High product quality

 30.    A problem for developing countries is that the prices of primary products fluctuate more widely than do the prices of finished goods because
     a)    Crop supply changes very little despite the weather
     b)    Crop supply fluctuate with the weather
     c)    Weather never varies
     d)    Crop demand fluctuates with the weather

 31.    The yeardstick most often used to compare living standards across nation is
     a) Average production cost per unit
     b) Sales revenue per month
     c) Output per capita    d) Imports per year

 32.    The difference between a specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff is that a specific tariff
     a)    Is a set amount of money per unit of a product, while an ad valorem tariff is a set per centage of product price
     b)    Is a set per centage of product price, while an ad valorem tariff is a set amount of money per unit of a product
     c)    Applies only to imports, while an ad valorem tariff applies only to exports
     d)    Sets a strict quota limit on the amount one individual can purchase, while an ad valorem tariff sets no such limit.

 33.    To review Tendulkar's methodology on poverty an expert group was set up by the Planning Commission under the chairmanship of
     a) Abhijit Sen    b) Rangarajan
     c) Padmanabhan    d) Y.V.Reddy

 34.    Which of the following is not classified as a service in the current account?
     a)    Transportation
     b)    Tourist expenditures
     c)    Income earned from foreign investments
     d)    Unilateral transfers

 35.    Which one of the following is not true?
     a)    An exchange rate is the price of one currency in terms of another
     b)    An exchange rate is the means by which the price of a good in one country is translated into the price to the buyer in another country
     c)    The exchange rate will affect the willingness of the foreign buyers and sellers to trade with each other
     d)    The exchange rate is the price of a currency in terms of another currency for exchanges of goods and services but not for financial transactions

 36.    RuPay has been developed by
     a)    Reserve Bank of India
     b)    National Payment Corporation Limited
     c)    Public Accounts Committee
     d)    The Comptroller and Auditor General

 37.    Which of the following group was declared as most valuable brand in 2014 by Brand Finance Global 500?
     a) Reliance Group    b) Adani Group
     c) Tata Group    d) GMR group

 38.    Which one of the following is called 'Pearl of the Antilles'?
     a)    Rowlatt act
     b)    Formation of Swaraj Party
     c)    Fast unto death by Mahatma Gandhi
     d)    Formation of Home Rule League by Tilak

 39.    Arrange the following Governor General in ascending order of their period?
     I)    Marques of Hastings
     II)    Lord Cornwallis
     III)    George Barlow
     IV)    Lord Amherst
     a) II, III, I, IV    b) I, II, IV, III
     c) III, IV, II, I    d) II, I, III, IV

 40.    Arrange the following in Chronological order?
     I)    Cripps Mission
     II)    Simon Commission
     III)    Cabinet Mission
     IV)    Wavell Plan
     a) III, II, I, IV    b) II, I, IV, III
     c) II, IV, III, I    d) II, I, III, IV

 41.    William Bentinck annexed following states. Arrange them in ascending order with respect to the years of their annexation?
     I) Cachar        II) Coorg
     III) Jaintia    IV) Mysore
     a) 4, 1, 2, 3    b) 4, 2, 1, 3
     c) 2, 1, 4, 3    d) 1, 2, 3, 4

 42.    Which one is wrong about Amir Khusrow?
     a)    He was nicknamed as the 'Parrot of India'
     b)    He wrote the 'Tughlqnama'
     c)    He created a new style of Persian which came to be called the ' Sabak-i-Hindi' or the style of India
     d)    He was the court poet of Balban

 43.    The Graeco-Roman merchants visiting South India during Sangam Age were referred to in the Tamil literature as?
     a) Romans    b) Yavanas
     c) Videshes
     d) None of the above

 44.    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer from the codes given below
     List-I
         I) Purna Kassapa
         II) Gosala Maskariputra
         III) Ajita Kesakambali
         IV) Paduka Katyayana
     List-II
         A) Samkhya School
         B) Ajivika Sampradaya
         C) Charvaka School
         D) Valsheshika School
     a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
     b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
     c) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
     d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

 45.    Match List-I with List-II and select the answer from the code given below?
     List-I
     I) Abdur Razzaq
     II) Numiz        III) Marco Polo
     IV) Ibn Battuta    V) Niccolo Conti
     List-II
     A)    An Italian, visited Kakatiya Kingdom during the reign of Rudrama Devi
     B)    An Italian, visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Devaraja II
     C)    Persian, visited Vijayanagar during Devaraja II
     D)    Moroccan, visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Harihara I
     E)    Portuguese, visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Achyutaraya
     a) I-C, II-E, III-A, IV-D, V-B
     b) I-E, II-C, III-D, IV-A, V-A
     c) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C, V-E
     d) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C

 46.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists?
     List-I
         I) Udranga    II) Uparika
         III) Visti    IV) Vithi
     List-II
         A) State Official
         B) A type of land tax
         C) Territorial division
         D) Forced labour
         E) Administrative department
     Codes:
     a) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
     b) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
     c) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-E
     d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

 47.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists?
     List-I
         I) Langahs    II) Muzaffarid
         III) Jams    IV) Karranis
     List-II
         A) Thattah    B) Gujarat
         C) Multan    D) Bengal
     a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
     b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
     c) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
     d) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

 48.    Match the following and select the answer from the code given below?
     I)    Itimad-ud-Daula's Tomb
     II)    Humayun's Tomb
     III)    Akbar's Tomb
     IV)    Tomb of Aurangzeb's Wife
     A)    'Forerunner' of the Tajmahal
     B)    Begining of the use of white marble by the mughals
     C)    Influence of Buddhist Vihara
     D)    Replica of the Taj Mahal
     a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
     b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
     c) I-C, II-D, II-A, IV-B
     d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

 49.    Match the following theories and Propounders about the origin of congress, and select the answer from the code given below
     I)    Mysterious origin Theory
     II)    Dufferin's Authorship Theory
     III)    Dufferin's - Hume Conspiracy theory
     IV)    Safety-Valve Theory
         A) Lajpat Rai    B) R.P. Dutta
         C) W.C. Banerjee
         D) Pattabhi Sitarmayya
     a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
     b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
     c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
     d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

 50.    Match the following
     List-I
         I) Comrade    II) Al Hilal
         III) The Indian Musalman
         IV) Leader
     List-II
     A) Madan Mohan Malaviya
     B) WW Hunter
     C) Abul Kalam Azad
     D) Maulana Mohammad Ali
     a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
     b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
     c) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
     d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B

 51.    Consider the following statements in the Context of Dara Shikoh?
     I)    He began as an orthodox but ended up as a liberal sufi
     II)    He had several Sanskrit works translated into persian
     III)    He wrote a biography of Muslim Saints
     a) I, II, and III are correct
     b) I and II are correct
     c) I and III are correct
     d) II and III are correct

 52.    Consider the following statements?
     The policy of trade followed by the British government proved ruinous to the Indian economy on account of
     I)    Tough competition from foreign goods
     II)    Enormous increase in imports
     III)    Rise in the prices of raw materials
     IV)    Increased production of cash crops like jute
     a) I, II and IV are correct
     b) I, II and III are correct
     c) II and IV are correct
     d) I, II and IV are correct

 53.    Coral Reefs are developed in
     1.    Tropical seas and oceans
     2.    Shallow seas and oceans
     3.    Tropical seas and oceans of high salinity
     a) 1 only    b) 1, 2    c) 2, 3    d) All

 54.    Performance of Indian Mansoon is influenced by
     1.    Temperature and pressure changes in Equatorial Indian ocean
     2.    Elnino
     3.    Summer surface Temperatures of Tibetan Plateau
     a) 2 only         b) 1, 2
     c) 2, 3        d) All the above

 55.    Identify the correct pair (s)
     1. Yazudis: Northern Iraq
     2. Kurds: Northern Iraq
     3. Tauregs: Iranian Plateau
     a) 1 only    b) 1, 2    c) 2, 3    d) All

 56.    Which of the following are not part of Western Ghats ecosystem
     1. Siruveni     2. Silent valley
     3. Valley of flowers
     a) 1 only     b) 1, 2     c) 3 only    d) 1, 3

 57.    Match the following
     A. AGPL
     B. Radcliffline
     C. MC Mohan Line
     D. Indira Point
         1. Arunachal Pradesh
         2. Great Nicobar
         3. Gujarath
         4. J&K
         A    B    C    D
     a)    4    3    1    2
     b)    4    3    2    1
     c)    3    4    2    1
     d)    3    4    1    2

 58.    Rich reserves of this mineral are concentrated in Eastern Ghats of India. It is known for malleability. It’s processing requires large quantity of Electricity. This description best suites.
     a) Sphalerite    b) Bornite
     c) Bauxite    d) Galena
 59.    Which of the following tree species are not found in Taiga ecosystems.
     1. Pine    2. Fir    3. Spruce    4. Cedar
     a) 1,2    b) 3    c) 3,4    d) None

 60.    Identify the areas associated with Nonconventional energy in India from out of the following.
     1. Kalba Devi     2. Pugga Valley
     3. Viznijam
     a) 2 only    b) 3 only    c) 2,3    d) All

 61.    Consider the following statements.
     1.    Level of urbanisation of India is less than that of Asian Average.
     2.    Level of urbanisation of India is less than that of African average.
     3.    Level of urbanisation of India is less than that of world average which of the above are correct
     a) 3 only     b) 3, 2    c) All     d) None

 62.    Arrange the following Threatened / Endangered species in the North - South direction in order of the location of their Habitat
     1. Lion tailed Macaque
     2. One Horned Rhino
     3. Wild Ass    4. Pine Marten
     a) 4,2,3,1    b) 4,2,1,3    c) 2,4,1,3    d) 2,4,3,1

 63.    Which of the following about Thar desert are true.
     1. Dominance of seifs
     2. Occurrence of saline lakes in Bagar.
     3. Formed in the Pleistocene period.
     a) 1 only     b) 1,2    c) 2 only    d) All

 64.    Moving away from coal to other fuels is not easy and possible for Indian economy immediately because.
     1.    India’s Coal reserves are huge.
     2.    Indian Coal is of best quality High Grade cooking Variety.
     3.    Oil and Natural Gas reserves are scarce.
     4.    Non conventional energies are not commercialised.
     a) 1, 3     b) 1, 2, 3    c) 1, 3, 4    d) All

 65.    Which of the following are the problems of water resources in India.
     1. Inadequacy    2. Inability to store
     3. Pollution
     4. Wastage during use
     a) 1, 2     b) 2, 3, 4    c) 1, 2, 3    d) All    

 66.    Gond tribes spread over
     1. Telangana    2. Chattisgarh
     3. Maharashtra     4. Orissa
     a) 1, 2    b) 2, 3    c) 1, 2, 3    d) All

 67.    Which of the following crops require water logging
     1. Paddy     2. Sugar Cane     3. Cotton
     a) 1 only      b) 1, 2     c) All     d) None

 68.    From which of the following regions, many rivers originate and drain out in different directions.
      a) Nanda Devi peak    b) Siachen glacier
     c) Kailas Ranges     d) Mishmi Ranges

 69.    Consider the following statements..
     1.    HIV transmission cannot take place through breast feeding
     2.    HIV is an enveloped and lentivirus
     Which of statements is/are true..
     a) 1 only        b) 2 only
     c) Both 1& 2    d) Neither 1 nor 2

 70.    The information system developed on TB patients
     a) Nikshay    b) Indus
     c) Bharosa    d) Nirbhay

 71.    The defluoridation technique called Nalgonda Technique was developed by
     a)    Central Electronic Engineering Research Institute
     b)    National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
     c)    Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute
     d)    Indian Institute of Chemical Technology

 72.    Match the following
     Reactor site
         A) Chhaya mithivirdi
         B) Bargi    
         C) Jaitapur
         D) Haripur
     State
         1) West Bengal
         2) Gujarat
         3) Madhya Pradesh
         4) Maharashtra
         A    B    C    D
     a)    3    4    2    1
     b)    1    2    3    4
     c)    2    3    1    4
     d)    2    3    4    1

 73.    What is slogan of 2014 World TB Day..
     a)    Reach the 3 million: Find, Treat, Cure TB
     b)    Reach the 9 million: Find, Treat, Cure TB
     c)    Raise the voice against TB
     d)    Stop TB

 74.    The method of immobility Nuclear Waste in glass matrix
     a) Enrichment    b) Vitrification
     c) annealing    d) matrix ceiling

 75.    The effect of radiation on humans is measured in the unit.
     a) millicurie    b) becquerel
     c) millisieverts    d) None of these

 76.    Consider the following statements..
     1)    India's Indigenous cryogenic engine was first tested successfully onboard GSLV-D3
     2)    Such cryogenic engine was developed by Liquid Propulsion System Centre. Which of these statements is/are true
     a) only 1        b) only 2
     c) Both 1&2    d) Neither 1 nor 2

 77.    Which of these elements is called Brimstone
     a) Fluorine    b) Oxygen
     c) Bromine    d) Sulphur

 78.    Which of following animals exhibit bioluminescence
     a) palolo worm    b) Glow worm
     c) noctiluca    d) All of these

 79.    The atomic theory was first explained in
     a) samkhya    b) vaiseshika
     c) Nyaya        d) Yoga

 80.    The virus responsible for severe birdflu epidemic in China in recent years..
     a) H1N1    b) H5N1    c) H7N9    d) H1N2

 81.    Which of the following is a completely aquatic mammal
     a) Walrus    c) Otter    d) Beaver    d) Dugong

 82.    Which of the following amphibian male exhibits remarkable parental care behaviour
     a) Rhacophorus    b) Alytes
     c) Tiger salamander    d) Hyla

 83.    Which of the following animals show discontinuous distribution..
     a) Flightless birds    b) Lungfish
     c) Marsupials    d) All of these

 84.    The reasons for long shelf life of Honey
     a) low water and high sugar content
     b) low sugar and high water content
     c) presence of microbicidal chemicals
     d) presence of antibiotics

 85.    Which of the following animal/plant are threat to indigenous biodiversity
     a) Parthenium    b)Lantana
     c) Blue bar pigeon    d) All of these

 86.    Which of the following is a non-fissile material
     a) Uranium-238    b) Uranium-235
     c) Uranium-233    d) Plutonium-239

 87.    Match the following..
     A) Pyrolusite    1) Lead
     B) Rutile        2) Mercury
     C) Cinnabar    3) Titanium
     D) Galena    4) Manganese
         A    B    C    D
     a)    1    2    3    4
     b)    4    3    2    1
     c)    3    4    1    2
     d)    4    3    1    2

 88.    The traditional female sea diver of Japan is called
     a) Ama    b) LIngha    c) Miki    d) Norio

 89.    With reference to Kasturirangan committee report on Western Ghats, Cultural landscape is
     a)    landscape not affected by humans
     b)    Landscape inhabited by indigenous tribes
     c)    Landscape afftected by humans
     d)    Landscape outside protected areas

 90.    The transitional zone between two ecosystems
     a) Ecozone    b) Ecotone
     c) Ecological Niche
     d) Ecological footprint

 91.    The Ecological adaptation in which animals in temperate zones have smaller extremities
     a) Gloger's rule    b) Bergmann's rule
     c) Jordan's rule    d) Allen's rule

 92    Out of the 17 megadiversity countries identified India stands
     a) 7th    b) 10th    c) 12th    d) 14th

 93.    The biodiversity hotspot "Succulent Karoo' is located in
     a) Africa     b) North America
     c) South America     d) Europe

 94.    The state animal of Tamil Nadu
     a) Sambar     b) Gaur
     c) Nilgiri Tahr     d) Blackbuck

 95.    Which harmful chemical in packaging materials is affecting human biological system
     a) Diethylhexyl fumarate
     b) Polychlorinated biphenyls
     c) biphenyl
     d) polyaromatic hydrocarbons

 96.    The sacred Khecheopalri lake is located at
     a) Mizoram     b) Sikkim
     c) Meghalaya     d) Manipur

 97.    The International convention to prevent and control transboundary movement of hazardous substances
     a) Bonn convention
     b) Stockholm convention
     c) Basel convention
     d) Ramsar convention

 98.     A very good example of ex-situ conservation
     a) National park     b) sanctuary
     c) Botanical garden
     d) Conservation reserve

 99.    India's first Post Office Saving Bank ATM was inaugurated in which of the following city recently
     a) Hyderabad    b) Chennai
     c) Bengaluru    d) New Delhi

 100. Which of the following is most likely to happen during a recession?
     a) Decrease in inventory
     b) Producers will be cautiously optimistic
     c) Capacity under utilization
     d) Expansion in bank credit
 
 
 key
     1) d     2) a     3) c     4) c     5) a
     6) d     7) b     8) a     9) a     10) b
     11) a     12) b     13) d     14) d     15) c
     16) c     17) c     18) d     19) a     20) c
     21) d     22) b     23) a     24) b     25) d
     26) b     27) a     28) b     29) c     30) b
     31) d     32) a     33) b     34) d     35) d
     36) b     37) c    38) c     39) a     40) b
     41) a     42) d     43) b     44) a     45) a
     46) b     47) c    48) a     49) d     50) a
     51) d     52) d     53) b     54) d     55) b
     56) c     57) a     58) c     59) d     60) d
     61) c     62) a     63) c     64) c     65) b
     66) c     67) b     68) c    69) c     70) a
     71) b     72) d     73) a     74) b     75) c
     76) b     77) d     78) d     79) b     80) c
     81) d     82) b     83) d     84) a     85) d
     86) a     87) a     88) a    89) c     90) b
     91) d     92) a     93) a     94) c     95) a
     96) b     97) c     98) c     99) b     100) c