TV
reasoning
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ఇంటి ప్రేమే అసలు వైద్యం
సమాజంలో టీనేజ్‌ పిల్లల్లో డిప్రెషన్ పెరిగిందని నిపుణులు హెచ్చరిస్తూనే ఉన్నారు. ఆత్మహత్యలు తార్కాణాలుగా నిలుస్తూనే ఉన్నాయి. కాని తల్లిదండ్రులు మేల్కొనడం లేదు. టీనేజ్‌లో ఉన్న పిల్లల మూడ్స్‌ను గమనించి వారిని అక్కున చేర్చుకోవాల్సింది మొదట తల్లిదండ్రులే. వైద్యం మొదలవ్వాల్సింది ఇంటి నుంచే. డిప్రెషన్ సూచనలు కనిపించే పిల్లల్ని ఎలా కాపాడుకోవాలి? తెలుసుకుందాం. ఏదో భయం. ఆందోళన. తల్లిదండ్రుల అంచనాకు తగినట్టు లేనని భయం. మార్కులు తగినన్ని తేలేకపోతున్నానని భయం. పాఠాలంటే భయం. పరీక్షలంటే భయం. ఒంటరిగా ఉండాలంటే భయం. స్నేహితులు లేరని భయం. స్నేహితులతో స్నేహం చెడుతుందేమోనని భయం. ఎవరితో చెప్పుకోవాలో తెలియని భయం. ఎవరితోనూ చెప్పుకోలేనేమోనని భయం. టీనేజ్‌ పిల్లలు ఎదిగీ ఎదగని లేత వయసు పిల్లలు. వారికి అన్నీ సందేహాలే. ఆందోళనలే. మన దేశంలో 13–17 ఏళ్ల మధ్య ఉన్న దాదాపు కోటిమంది టీనేజ్‌ పిల్లలు డిప్రెషన్ బారిన పడుతున్నారని ఒక అంచన. డిప్రెషన్‌లో భయం, ఆందోళన ఉంటాయి. ఈ వయసులో మొదలైన డిప్రెషన్ కొందరిని ముప్పైల్లో, నలబైల్లో ప్రవేశించే వరకు వెంటాడుతుంది. కొందరిని జీవితాంతం వెంటాడవచ్చు. ఇలాంటి స్థితిలో ఉన్న పిల్లలు చీమను కూడా భూతద్దంలో చూసి భయపడతారు. తమ సమస్యకు సమాధానం లేదేమో, ఎవరి నుంచీ దొరకదేమో అనిపించడమే డిప్రెషన్ అత్యంత ప్రమాదకరమైన స్థితి. సమస్యకు పరిష్కారం చావు అనిపించడం దీని పర్యవసానం. ఇంతవరకూ వచ్చే లోపు తల్లిదండ్రులు అప్రమత్తంగా ఉండి పిల్లల్ని కాపాడుకుంటే వారు ఆ స్థితిని దాటుతారు. లేదంటే అపాయంలో పడతారు. కారణాలు టీనేజ్‌ పిల్లల్లో డిప్రెషన్, యాంగ్జయిటీ రావడానికి కారణాలు ఇదమిత్థంగా తేల్చలేము. చదువుకు సంబంధించిన ఒత్తిడి, తల్లిదండ్రులతో బలమైన అనుబంధం మిస్‌ కావడం, ర్యాంకుల బరువు, భవిష్యత్తుపై బెంగ, రూపం గురించిన చింత, మెదడులో అసమతుల్యత... ఏమైనా కావచ్చు. మనదేశంలోని సీబీఎస్‌ఈ స్కూళ్లల్లో సర్వే చేస్తే చాలామంది పిల్లలు తమకు క్లోజ్‌ ఫ్రెండ్స్‌ లేరని చెప్పారు. లక్షణాలు ఉత్సాహం చూపకపోవడం, చిరాకు, కోపం, ఆత్మవిశ్వాసం సన్నగిల్లడం, నిద్ర సరిగా ఉండకపోవడం, అలసట, ధ్యాస లేకపోవడం, సరిగా చదవలేక పోవడం... ఏం చేయాలి? ముందు తల్లిదండ్రులు, తదుపరి స్కూళ్లు శ్రద్ధ వహించాలి. ► తల్లిదండ్రులు టీనేజ్‌లో ఉన్న పిల్లలతో నిత్యం సంభాషణ జరపాలి. వారితో కూచుని వారు నిస్సంకోచంగా తమ సమస్యలు చెప్పుకోనివ్వాలి. వారు చెప్పేది కొట్టేయకుండా, బదులు తిట్టకుండా అర్థం చేసుకోవాలి. సమస్య మూలాల వరకూ వెళ్లాలి. వారికి చాలా ప్రేమను ఇస్తూ కౌన్సిలింగ్‌ చేయాలి. రెండు శాతం కంటే తక్కువ మంది పిల్లలకు మందులతో వైద్యం అవసరం కావచ్చు. ► తల్లిదండ్రులు పిల్లల శ్రద్ధ, శక్తిని అంచనా వేస్తూ వారికి లక్ష్యాలు ఇవ్వాలి. వారికి పూర్తిగా ఇష్టం లేని, వారు చేయలేని చదువులో ప్రవేశ పెట్టరాదు. వారు గట్టి స్నేహితులు కలిగి ఉండేలా చూడాలి. ఆ స్నేహితులను ఇంటికి ఆహ్వానించి పిల్లలు వారితో గడిపేలా చేయాలి. పిల్లలను గాయపరిచే మాటలు తల్లిదండ్రులు మాట్లాడటం బొత్తిగా మానుకోవాలి. మేమున్నామన్న భరోసా ఇవ్వాలి. ► స్కూళ్లు విధిగా కౌన్సిలర్లను ఉంచాలి. తరగతి వారీగా, ప్రతి విద్యార్థిని మెంటల్‌ హెల్త్‌ విషయంలో అంచనా కట్టాలి. వారి సమస్యను అర్థం చేసుకుని టీచర్లకు, లెక్చరర్లకు అవగాహన కల్పించడమే కాక తల్లిదండ్రులకు సమస్య తెలపాలి. అసలు సమస్య మనదేశంలో దాదాపు 4 వేల మంది సైకియాట్రిస్ట్‌లు, వెయ్యి మంది క్లినికల్‌ సైకాలజిస్ట్‌లు ఉన్నారు. వీరంతా పెద్ద ఆస్పత్రుల్లో లేదా సొంత క్లినిక్‌లలో ఉంటారు. టీనేజ్‌ పిల్లలకు వీరితో యాక్సెస్‌ ఉండదు. స్కూళ్లల్లో మానసిక సమస్యలు గమనించి భరోసా ఇచ్చే కౌన్సెలర్‌ల వ్యవస్థ ఇప్పటికీ ఏర్పడలేదు. ప్రభుత్వ బడులలో చదివే పిల్లలకు తమకు మానసికంగా ఇబ్బంది ఉన్నట్టు గ్రహించడం కూడా తెలియదు. కనుక పిల్లలు ఆత్మహత్యలు చేసుకునే వరకూ వెళుతున్నారు. -
కోడింగ్ - డీకోడింగ్
1. In a certain code 'MOSQUITO' is written as 'IMOOQSTU'. How will 'DESIRABLE' be written in that code? 1) ABDLEEIRS 2) ADBEEILRS 3) ABDEEILRS 4) ABDEIELRS 5) None of these 2. In a certain code MODERN is written as 'PAGOUQ' and MUSIC is written as 'PEVUF'. How is SAMPLE written in that code? 1) VIQSOU 2) VIPSOO 3) VIOQSOO 4) VQISOO 5) None of these 3. In a certain code language MEDIUM is written as PLXDLC. How is STIFLE written in that code? 1) HROSIH 2) HORSEH 3) HRSOEH 4) ROHSEH 5) None of these 4. In a certain code language MEAL is written as ZRNY. How is LIFE written in that code? 1) YVRS 2) RYVS 3) YSVR 4) YVSR 5) None of these 5. In a certain code language POEM is written as RRJT. How will GAMBLE be written in that code? 1) IDRIWUR 2) IDRIRW 3) IDRIWR 4) DIRIWR 5) None of these 6. In a certain code MAY GOD BLESS YOU ALWAYS is written as 5ALWAYS 4BLESS 3MAY 2GOD 1YOU. How is 'GOD BLESSES THOSE WHO WORK' written in that code? 1) 5BLESSES 4GOD 3THOSE 2WORK 1WHO 2) 5BLESSES 4GOD 3THOSE 2WHO 1WORK 3) 5BLESS 4GOD 3THOSE 2WHO 1WORK 4) 5BLESSES 4GOD 2THOSE 3WHO 1WORK 5) None of these 7. In a certain code BIT = 31 and PINK = 50, then RAIN will be? 1) 42 2) 41 3) 43 4) 44 5) None of these 8. In a certain code GREY = 53 and SIT = 33, then SING will be? 1) 59 2) 57 3) 49 4) 47 5) None of these 9. In a certain code SING = 31 and RED = 18, then SUMMER will be 1) 34 2) 35 3) 89 4) 98 5) None of these 10. In a certain code ACE = 15 and BAT = 40, then APE will be? 1) 50 2) 60 3) 80 4) 70 5) Cannot be determined 11. In a certain code MUSIC = 125 and CANADA = 216, then KINETIC will be? 1) 729 2) 512 3) 71 4) 343 5) 342 12. In a certain code BET = 8 and JAR = 180, then TEN will be? 1) 90 2) 180 3) 39 4) 56 5) 65 13. In a certain code DECEMBER = 27.5 and JULY = 34, then APRIL will be? 1) 19 2) 18 3) 56 4) 28 5) 65 14. In a certain code DETERMINED = 9.70 and STEM = 14.25, then TENSE will be? 1) 20.22 2) 10.55 3) 12.6 4) 13.6 (5) 14.5 15. In a certain code MET=78, DEAR = 104, then SINGER will be? 1) 90 2) 180 3) 156 4) 256 5) 216 16. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to SECTOR? 1) RWLGPF 2) EOFKUQ 3) EOFMXS 4) RWLEPD 5) RWLEND Directions (Q.17 to 19): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet. 17. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language? 1) EDVDRJSI 2) EFUFRHSI 3) EFUFRJSI 4) EDUFRJSI 5) None of these 18. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language? 1) CPOGFEDRBUTPO 2) CPOEFEFRBUJPO 3) CNOEFEFRBUHNO 4) CONFFDERATION 5) None of these 19. How can the word DEMONSTRATION be written in that code language? 1) EFMPOSURBUJPO 2) EFOEFEFRBUJPO 3) EFOEMPRBUHNO 4) EFOEMPBRUHNO 5) None of these 1)3, 2)2, 3)1, 4)4, 5)3, 6)2, 7)1, 8)1, 9)2, 10)3, 11)4, 12)4, 13)4, 14)3, 15)3, 16)5, 17)3, 18)2, 19)1 -
బ్యాంకులు పి.ఒ. పరీక్ష మోడల్ పేపర్
Directions (Q. 1-5): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I follows. 2) if only conclusion II follows. 3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 1. Statements: All dancers are great. All painters are great. No great is intelligent. Conclusions: I. Some great are not intelligent. II. Some painters are not intelligent. 2. Statements: No rod is a pen. Some pens are bags. Some bags are cheap. Conclusions: I. All rods being cheap is a possibility. II. Some bags are definitely not rods. 3. Statements: Some periodicals are magazines. All magazines are books. Some magazines are not weeklies. Conclusions: I. Some weeklies are not books II. Some weeklies are not periodicals 4. Statements: All cats are dogs. All dogs are goats. No cat is ugly. Conclusions: I. All ugly being goats is possible. II. All goats being dogs is a possibility. 5. Statements: All balls are round. No round is chain. Some chains are dolls. Conclusions: I. Some dolls are not round. II. Some round are not dolls. Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer: 1) if only conclusion I is true. 2) if only conclusion II is true. 3) if either conclusion I or II is true. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 6. Statement: D greaterthan or equal B = C; Q > M lessthanor equal L Conclusions: I. M < C II. D greaterthen or equal M 7. Statements: A > Y greaterthan or equal L; K < Y> R Conclusions: I. A < K II. K > R 8. Statements: T greaterthen or equal B lessthanor equal D, R > B > S Conclusions: I. D > S II. T < R 9. Statement: S greaterthan or equal P > N ; A lessthanor equal P lessthanor equal Q Conclusions: I. S < A II. Q < N 10. Statement: G > S, J greaterthan or equal P, G = P, J lessthanor equal D Conclusions: I. P < D II. G = D Directions (Q. 11 - 18): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, U, W and X are eight persons of a family. There are three married couples in the family. The persons are from three generations. All females of this family are married. Q and P are the offspring of S while W and X are the offspring of T and R respectively. U is the wife of S. R is one of the females and she is not the wife of P. Among them there are three teachers, two businessmen, two athletes and one painter. Each person has only one occupation. All of them are sitting around a circular table. They sit in such a manner that only one of the grandsons of S is sitting between R and P while only T is sitting between Q and U. One of the sons of S is on the immediate left of S. Only one person is sitting between R and Q, but it is not X. W, who is not sitting next to Q, is also not sitting opposite S. Q is not sitting opposite a female. The person who are on the immediate left of W and immediate right of Q are not teachers while X is a renowned painter. The persons who are sitting next to T are neither businessmen nor teachers. 11. Who is sitting exactly in front of X? 1) S 2) T 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 12. What is the profession of P? 1) Painter 2) Teacher 3) Businessman 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these 13. Who is seated immediate left of R? 1) S 2) T 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 14. Who is sitting immediate right of P? 1) S 2) T 3) R 4) X 5) None of these 15. In which of the following third person is sitting between first and second person? 1) QRS 2) QSR 3) RXP 4) PWR 5) None of these 16. The only male who is sitting opposite a female is a/an 1) Businessman 2) Teacher 3) Athlete 4) Painter 5) None of these 17. The two females who are sitting adjacent to each other are 1) R and T 2) R and P 3) T and U 4) R and U 5) None of these 18. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from P, the position of whom amongst the following remains the same (excluding P)? 1) R, S and X 2) R, T and X 3) R, Q and X 4) R, W and X 5) None of these Directions (Q. 19 - 23): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer: 1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question. 19. Among PQRS and T sitting in a straight line facing north, who sits exactly in the middle of the line? I. P sits third to the left of S. T is an immediate neighbour of P as well as R. II. T sits second to the left of S. Q is not an immediate neighbour of either T or S. 20. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest? I. P is taller than S and T but shorter than R. Q is taller than S. II. T is taller than S. P is not the tallest. 21. Who among A, B, C, D, E & F came first in the running race? I. F, who is behind B, was second to reach the finishing point. II. C was ahead of D, E and A when the race is finished by all of them. 22. Is C the grandmother of M? I. C is the mother of D. D is the brother of M's father. II. E is the mother of S. S is the sister of M. F, the aunt of S, is the only daughter of C. 23. What is Ramesh's rank in the class of 70 students? I. Kamesh, whose rank is 35th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 6 ranks. The difference between Ramesh's rank and that of Shyam's is just 5. II. Kiran's rank is 22nd from the bottom, and he is three ranks behind Ramesh. Directions (Q. 24 - 27): Following are steps of an input. Rearrange them and answer the questions. A) quality travel between develop kettle B) between develop kettle quality travel C) kettle quality travel between develop D) travel between develop kettle quality E) kettle quality develop travel between 24. Which of the following is step III? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E 25. Which of the following is first from the right end of step II? 1) between 2) kettle 3) quality 4) develop 5) None of these 26. Which of the following is step V? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E 27. Which of the following is step IV? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E Directions (Q. 28 - 33): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work in three different companies X,Y and Z. There are two ladies who work in different companies and their specialization is also different. Two of them have specialization in Finance. Another two have specialization in Human Resources, two have specialization in Marketing, one is Engineer and one of them is specialist in computer. D is specialist in Human Resource working in company X while her friend G is a Finance specialist and works in company Z. H is Human Resource specialist who works with Marketing specialist B but does not work in company Y. The two persons with same specialization do not work together. Marketing specialist F works in company Y and his friend A who is Finance specialist works in company X with only one other specialist. In no company more than three persons work. C is an Engineer and his sister works in company Z. No lady is an Engineer or computer specialist. 28. In which company does C work? 1) X 2) Y 3) Z 4) Can't say 5) None of these 29. In which company does E work? 1) X 2) Y 3) Z 4) Can't say 5) None of these 30. In which two companies do Human Resource specialists work? 1) X & Y 2) Y & Z 3) Z & X 4) Can't say 5) None of these 31. The two ladies are 1) D & G 2) D & E 3) D & F 4) Can't be determined 5) None of these 32. Mr. A works in 1) X 2) Y 3) Z 4) Can't say 5) None of these 33. Which of the following are working in company Z? 1) BGH 2) EGH 3) GCE 4) ABG 5) None of these Directions (Q. 34-38): Study the following statements carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language 'they are four friends' is coded as 'la ra sa ka', 'friends cooperate in need' is coded as 'da ma ra na', 'they have to cooperate' is coded as 'ta ka na va' and 'four have need to cooperate' is coded as 'va na la ta ma' 34. What does 'na' stand for? 1) cooperate 2) to 3) they 4) friends 5) four 35. What may be the code for 'need to cooperate'? 1) ma ta na 2) ma va na 3) ra va na 4) ra na ta 5) either 1 or 2 36. How will 'they are in need' be coded? 1) ka sa ma da 2) ka sa ta da 3) va sa ma da 4) ka sa na da 5) None of these 37. What will be the code for 'sa la ka'? 1) need to cooperate 2) friends are four 3) they are four 4) they are friends 5) None of these 38. What is the code for 'four'? 1) la 2) ka 3) ra 4) sa 5) either sa or ra Directions (Q. 39 - 44): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer: 1) if only assumption I is implicit 2) if only assumption II is implicit 3) if either I or II is implicit 4) if neither I nor II is implicit 5) if both I and II are implicit 39. Statement: In the recently imposed sanctions, global public opinion was dishonoured by the economically strong and scientifically advanced superpower. Assumptions: I. Superpowers need not take any heed of global public opinion. II. Global public opinion should have been against the imposition of sanctions. 40. Statement: Wars must be discouraged vehemently even though majority of the victims might have been a nuisance to peace loving people. Assumptions: I. Some people create problems to peace loving people. II. Wars kill majority of wicked people. 41. Statement: Wars must be discouraged vehemently even though majority of the victims might have been a nuisance to peace loving people. Assumptions: I. Innocent people are also killed in wars. II. Vehement opposition to wars may have desirable impact. 42. Statement: The principal instructed all the teachers to be careful in class because some students may disturb other students. Assumptions: I. The teachers will handle the situation properly and they will point out the naughty students. II. The students will welcome the decision of the principal. 43. Statement: The government has set up a fact finding mission to look into the possible reasons for the recent fire accident in the area. Assumptions: I. The mission may be able to come up with reliable information on the issue. II. The people in the area may cooperate with the mission and come forward to give detailed information related to the incident. 44. Statement: India's economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution. Assumptions: I. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth. II. A country desires economic growth with manageable side effects. Directions (Q. 45 - 50): In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow -up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer: 1) if only I follows 2) if only II follows 3) if either I or II follows 4) if neither I nor II follows 5) if both I and II follow 45. Statement: A large number of people visiting India from country 'X' have been tested positive for carrying viruses of a killer disease. Courses of action: I. The government of India should immediately put a complete ban on people coming to India from country 'X' including those Indians who are settled in country 'X'. II. The government of India should immediately set up detection centres at all its airports and seaports to identify and quarantine those who are tested positive. 46. Statement: There has been a continuous increase in the number of dropout students of govt.-run primary schools in the state. Courses of action: I. Govt. should immediately set up a committee to review the situation and suggest measures to reverse the trend. II. Govt. should close down such state run primary schools where dropout rates are more than fifty per cent. 47. Statement: Every year during monsoon, the condition of most of the roads in the city deteriorates causing immense problem to the commuters. Course of action: I. The civic body should include a heavy penalty clause while awarding future contracts for road repairs. II. The civic officials in charge of maintenance of city roads should be asked to explain why the condition of the roads worsens every year. 48. Statement: Many public sector undertakings have been making losses for the past few years and the situation is equally bad in the current year. Course of action: I. These loss making public sector companies should immediately be closed down. II. The govt. should scout for potential buyers in the private sector to sell these companies to get back part of the investments made by the govt. 49. Statement: It is estimated that about twenty lakhs people will visit the city during the ensuing festival. Courses of action: I. The civic authority should make adequate arrangements to tackle the situation. II. All the hospitals in the city should be put on high alert in case of any eventuality. 50. Statement: The meteorological department has predicted good monsoon this year for tenth consecutive year, which will result in good crop yield. Courses of action: I. The government should offload the stores before harvesting. II. The government should provide chemical fertilizers to farmers immediately. General Awareness, Marketing & Computers 51. India and which of the following countries have called for freedom of navigation in the South China Sea recently? 1) China 2) Japan 3) Vietnam 4) Laos 5) Philippines 52. The Prime Minister launched 'Swavalamban Abhiyan', a new pro-poor initiative of the Government of? 1) Maharashtra 2) Gujarat 3) Rajasthan 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Chhattisgarh 53. Who inaugurated the Nalanda University in Bihar in September 2014? 1) Sushma Swaraj 2) Narendra Modi 3) Smriti Irani 4) Pranab Mukherjee 5) Hamid Ansari 54. The Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Benjamin Netanyahu on the sidelines of the United Nations General Assembly in September 2014. He is the? 1) President of Israel 2) Prime Minister of Israel 3) President of Syria 4) Prime Minister of Syria 5) None of these 55. Yudh Abhyas 2014 is a combined military training exercise of India and? 1) Nepal 2) Singapore 3) Malaysia 4) USA 5) France 56. Which of the following declared 2014 as the Year of the Commando? 1) CRPF 2) NSG 3) BSF 4) ITBP 5) RAF 57. The Maulana Azad National Academy for Skills (MANAS) is being set up with its headquarters in? 1) New Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Hyderabad 4) Pune 5) Lucknow 58. Nadir Patel has been appointed as which country's new High Commissioner to India? 1) UK 2) New Zealand 3) Canada 4) South Africa 5) None of these 59. Who replaced Arvind Mayaram as the new Finance Secretary? 1) Shaktikanta Das 2) G.S. Sandhu 3) Arvind Ranjan 4) Rajiv Mehrishi 5) None of these Key: 1) 5; 2) 5; 3) 4; 4) 5; 5) 1; 6) 4; 7) 4; 8) 5; 9) 4; 10) 4; 11) 1; 12) 2; 13) 1; 14) 4; 15) 1; 16) 2; 17) 3; 18) 1; 19) 5; 20) 4; 21) 1; 22) 1; 23) 2; 24) 1; 25) 4; 26) 2; 27) 4; 28) 2; 29) 2; 30) 3; 31) 4; 32) 1; 33) 1; 34) 1; 35) 5; 36) 1; 37) 3; 38) 1; 39) 4; 40) 1; 41) 5; 42) 1; 43) 5; 44) 2; 45) 2; 46) 1; 47) 5; 48) 2; 49) 1; 50) 1; 51) 3; 52) 2; 53) 1; 54) 2; 55) 4; 56) 2; 57) 1; 58) 3; 59) 4. -
ఐబిపిఎస్ మోడల్ పేపర్
Reasoning Directions (Q.No. 1-5): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then de-cide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) if only conclusion I follows 2) if only conclusion II follows 3) if either conclusion I or II follows 4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows 5) if both conclusions I and II follow 1. Statements:All doctors are graduates All professors are graduates No graduate is illiterate. Conclusions: I. At least some professors are illiterates. II. Some professors are not illiterates. 2. Statements: No red is a pen. Some pens are big. Some big are costly. Conclusions: I. All red being costly is a possibility. II. Some big are definitely not red. 3. Statements: Some Books are magazines. All magazines are novels. Some magazines are not papers. Conclusions: I. Some papers are not novels II. some novels are not papers 4. Statements: All cars are four wheelers. All four wheelers are grand. No car is cheap Conclusions: I. All cheap being grand is possible. II. All cheap being four wheelers is a possibility. 5. Statements: All tables are red. No red is chair Some chairs are desks Conclusions: I. Some desks are not red. II. Some red are not desks. Directions (Q.No. 6-10): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) if only conclusion I is true. 2) if only conclusion II is true. 3) if either conclusion I or II is true. 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 6. Statements: A ³ B = C; Q > R £ L Conclusions: I. R < C II. A ³ R 7. Statements: Z > Y ³ L; K < Y > R Conclusions: I. Z < K II. Z > R 8. Statements: K £ B £ C; R > B > S Conclusions: I. C > S II. K < R 9. Statements: T ³ P > N ; A £ P £ R Conclusions: I. T < A II. R < N 10. Statements: G > S; J ³ E; G = E; J £ D Conclusions: I. E < D II. G = D Directions (Q.No. 11 - 18): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. There are eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one is wearing a different coloured hat i.e. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red and black. E is sitting on the second position towards the right of the person who is wearing an orange hat. Between the person who is wearing Indigo hat and E, only one person is sitting. H is sitting on the third place towards the right of the person who is wearing a blue hat. The person who is wearing blue hat is neither E nor sitting beside the person who is wearing Indigo colour hat. The person who was wearing a green hat is not sitting beside E. D is sitting beside the person who is wearing a green hat. D was wearing neither Indigo hat nor blue hat. E was not wearing a green hat. There are only two persons sitting between the person who was wearing green hat and the person who was wearing yellow hat. Only two persons are sitting between G and the person who was wearing yellow coloured hat. G was not wearing a green hat. The person who was wearing red hat is sitting at the right side of C. F was wearing violet hat. A was not wearing blue hat. 11. Who is sitting exactly in front of C? 1) D 2) H 3) A 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 12. Which colour hat A is wearing? 1) green 2) orange 3) black 4) indigo 5) None of these 13. Which colour hat G is wearing? 1) green 2) orange 3) black 4) red 5) None of these 14. Who is sitting immediate right of D? 1) H 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) None 15. In which of the following third person is sitting between first and second person? 1) ADH 2) AHD 3) BAD 4) BAG 5) None of these 16. In which of the following is second person is immediate left of first person? 1) DH 2) HE 3) EF 4) AB 5) None of these 17. Which of the following is not correct? 1) A – green hat 2) D – orange hat 3) B – blue hat 4) G – black hat 5) None of these 18. If all the people are made to sit in alphabetical order in anticlockwise direction starting from A, the position of whom amongst the followi-ng remains the same(excluding A)? 1) H 2) G 3) E 4) F 5) None of these Directions (Q.No. 19 - 23): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer: 1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, wh-ile the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question. 19. What does ‘Pe’ stands for in the code language? I. ‘Pa Ni Nok Pe’ means ‘I work till night’ and ‘Ri Nok Pe Pam’ means ‘they work till morning’ in that code language. II. ‘Mi Pe Mo Nam’ means ‘work to earn money’ and ‘Pe Mok Sac Li’ means ‘how will you work’ in that code language. 20. Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U, who are at different heights, is the tallest? I. P is shorter than only R. II. Only R is taller than P. 21. What is Kiran’s rank in a class of 77 students? I. Raj, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of Shyam by 8 ranks. There are 7 persons between Shyam and Kiran. II. Suresh is 26 ranks ahead of Kiran and Mala is 6 ranks behind Kiran. Savita stands exactly in the middle of Mala and Suresh. 22. Towards which direction is Q from R? I. Q is exactly to the south east of M. II. R is exactly to the south of M. 23. How many daughters does M have? I. P and Q are the only daughters of N. II. D is brother of P and son of M. Directions (Q.No. 24-27): Study the following statements carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language ‘reach the goal’ is coded as ‘ra sa ku’, ‘reach and enjoy’ is coded as ‘nu ku pa’ and ‘enjoy any goal’ is coded as ‘ta ra nu’. 24. What does ‘sa’ stand for? 1) read 2) book 3) the 4) and 5) None of these 25. What may be the code for ‘enjoy the goal’? 1) pa ta sa 2) nu ku ta 3) ku pa ta 4) ra nu sa 5) None of these 26. How ‘fix the goal’ may be coded? 1) nu pa ra 2) ra nu ku 3) zu sa ra 4) pa ku sa 5) None of these 27. What is the code for ‘enjoy’? 1) sa 2) nu 3) pa 4) ku 5) ta Directions (Q.No. 28 – 34): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square table while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Three females sit in the middle of the sides and two at the corners. A sits second to the left of G. G sits in the middle of one of the sides. C sits fourth to the right of his wife and his wife is not an immediate neighbour of A or G. B sits third to right of her husband. B does not sit at any of the corners. Only D sits between B and H. H is the husband of A. E is a male. 28. How many people sit between B and C when counted in anticlockwise direction from B? 1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 5) None 29. Who is second to the left of B? 1) I 2) G 3) H 4) F 5) None 30. What is the position of E with respect to C? 1) Immediate left 2) Second to the left 3) Third to the right 4) Immediately to the right 5) Second to the right 31. Who among the following is B’s husband? 1) C 2) G 3) E 4) G 5) Cannot be determined 32. Who among the following is the wife of C? 1) D 2) F 3) B 4) G 5) None 33. Which of the following pairs sits adjacent to each other? 1) BC 2) ED 3) GB 4) AE 5) None of these 34. Who is third to the left of A? 1) D 2) F 3) B 4) G 5) None Directions (Q.No. 35-37): Below is given a statement followed by two or three inferences. You have to examine each inference in the context of the statement given and decide which of the inference(s) is/ are valid. Give answer: 1) If the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given 2) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not’ definitely true’ in the light of the facts given 3) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false. 4) If the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given. 5) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts. A well established pharmaceuticals company in India, proficient in producing high value bulk actives, has targeted a sales turnover of Rs.50,000 crore by the year 2019. As a part of its projections for the next five years, the company envisaged Rs. 25000 crore worth of exports per year as against its present exports of Rs. 5000 crore. 35. The company may achieve the desir-ed target of Rs. 50,000 crore by 2019. 36. By 2019, more than 40 per cent of sales (around 50%) of the company will be expecting to get from the domestic market. 37. The company’s present export bill is 10 per cent of the projected total sales turnover by 2019. Key 1) 2; 2) 5; 3) 2; 4) 5; 5) 1; 6) 4; 7) 2; 8) 5; 9) 4; 10) 3; 11) 1; 12) 1; 13) 4; 14) 1; 15) 2; 16) 4; 17) 4; 18) 2; 19) 2; 20) 3; 21) 4; 22) 4; 23) 5; 24) 3; 25) 4; 26) 3; 27) 2; 28) 2; 29) 2; 30) 5; 31) 3; 32) 1; 33) 4; 34) 1; 35) 1; 36) 1; 37) 1. -
ఐబిపిఎస్ మోడల్ పేపర్
Reasoning Directions (Q.1-5): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I follows. 2) If only conclusion II follows. 3) If either conclusion I or II follows. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 5) If both conclusions I and II follow. 1. Statements: All scales are straight. No straight is round. Conclusions: I. At least some scales are round. II. No scales is round. 2. Statements: No poor is a rich. Some rich are big. Conclusions: I. No big is poor. II. Some big are definitely not poor. 3. Statements: Some TVs are colourful. All colourful are attractive. Conclusions: I. At least some TVs are attractive. II. All attractive are colourful. 4. Statements: All chocolates are tasty. All tasty are expensive. Conclusions: I. All expensive are chocolates. II.At least some expensive are tasty. 5. Statements: Some chairs are red. Some red are sofas. Conclusions: I. Some sofas are chairs. II. No chair is sofa. Directions (Q. 6-10): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 6. Statement: A ³ B = Q > C £ L Conclusions: I. C < A II. L ³ B 7. Statements: A > Y ³ L> K < R Conclusions: I. Y > K II. A > R 8. Statements: R = B £ C> D Conclusions: I. R > D II. D ³ B 9. Statement: T ³ P > N = A £ K Conclusions: I. T ³ K II. T < K 10. Statement: P ³ Q £ R = T > S Conclusions: I. P > S II. S ³ Q Directions (Q.11-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III- tier sleeper berth. Each of them has a different profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pa-thologist. They occupied two lower berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer is not on the upper berth. The Architect is the only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are not on the middle berth and their professions are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a journalist nor an Architect. K occupies same type of berth as that of the Doctor. 11. What is D's profession? 1) Doctor 2) Engineer 3) Lawyer 4) Pharmacist 5) Data inadequate 12. Which of the following group occu-pies middle berth? 1) DKR 2) DHT 3) HKT 4) DKT 5) None of these 13. Which of the following combi-nations of person-berth-profession is correct? 1) R-Lower - Journalist 2) R-Lower - Architect 3) D-Upper - Doctor 4) K-Upper - Lawyer 5) All are correct 14. Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth? 1) BD 2) BR 3) BT 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 15. Who is Architect? 1) D 2) H 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 16. Which of the following pairs occupy the upper berth? 1) BD 2) BR 3) MH 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Directions (Q.17-21): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer 1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 2) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 3) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 4) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 5) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question. 17. Towards which direction Ravi is finally facing? I. Ravi travelled towards north direction and he took right. He went further turned 90° Anti clockwise II. Early in the morning at 6 AM, when Ravi went for a walk he observed that his shadow is falling on his left side. 18. Who amongst A, B, C, D, E and F is the heaviest? I. A is heavier that C and E but not as heavy as F, who is heavier than B and D. II. C is the third in Weight in the ascending order and not as heavy as F, A and B. B being heavier than A, but is not the heaviest. 19. Is P the sister of Q? I. Q is the son of R. R is also the father of P. II. S is the wife of R, and this couple has two sons and only one daughter. 20. On which day was Lavanya born? I. Her mother correctly remembers that Lavanya was after 12th and before 17th of February. II. Her father correctly remembers that Lavanya was born neither on even number date nor on a prime number date. 21. What is Krishna's rank in the class of 50 students? I. Kalpana, whose rank is 28th in the class from the bottom, is ahead of Krishna by 6 ranks. II. There are two ranks between Krishna's and Venkat's rank, whose rank is 26th from the top. Directions (Q.22 - 27): Study carefully the following arrangement of letters, digits and symbols to answer these questions. M 7 £ 8 L P @? 6 N b T Y 3 2 = E $ 4 9 © G H 5 22. How many such letters are there in the arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a num-ber? 1) Three 2) Four 3) One 4) Two 5) None of these 23. How many such symbols are there in the arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number? 1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Nil 5) None of these 24. If all the symbols are deleted from the arrangement, which of the follo wing will be fourth to the left of the 17th element from the left end? 1) 9 2) E 3) 2 4) 4 5) None of these 25. '78' is to 'P? 6' and '? N' is to 'T32' in the same way as '2E' is to ___ in the arrangement. 1) 4©H 2) 49G 3) 4©G 4) 9GH 5) None of these 26. If all the numbers are deleted from the arrangement then which of the following will be fifth to the right of the 13th element from the right end? 1) b 2) N 3) Y 4) T 5) None of these 27. Which of the following letters is as far away from M to the right as G is away from N? 1) b 2) N 3) Y 4) T 5) None of these Directions (Q.28-32): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight friends E, F, G, H, J, L. M and N are sitting around a circle facing the centre. E sits fourth to the right of F. H sits second of the left of F. J sits third to right of M and M is not an immediate neighbour of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of E and N sits second to left of G. 28. In which of the following groups of people is the third person sitting exactly in the middle of the first and the second person? 1) HLE 2) MGL 3) MFJ 4) HFN 5) None of these 29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) EN 2) FL 3) ME 4) LH 5) NM 30. Which of the following pairs repre-sents the immediate neighbours of M? 1) LE 2) JH 3) LG 4) FG 5) None of these 31. Starting from E, if all the friends are made to sit in the alphabetical order of their names in the anti-clockwise direction, the positions of how many (except E) will remain unchanged? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three 32. Who sits third to the right of F? 1) J 2) L 3) H 4) M 5) None of these Directions (Q.33-37): Study the following statements carefully and answer the questions given below: In a certain code language 'go to school' is coded as 'ba la ka', 'I go there' is coded as 'nu ka ma', and 'school is there' is coded as 'da ba nu'. 33. What does 'la' stand for? 1) go 2) school 3) to 4) cannot be determined 5) None of these 34. What is the code for 'there' ? 1) da 2) nu 3) either da or ba 4) ba 5) None of these 35. How will 'I' be coded? 1) ma 2) nu 3) ka 4) either ma or ka 5) None of these 36. What may be the code for 'you may go there'? 1) ka nu pa za 2) pa za nu la 3) pa za ka la 4) pa za ba da 5) pa za nu ma 37. What is the code for 'go'? 1) la 2) nu 3) ma 4) ka 5) ba Key 1) 2; 2) 2; 3) 1; 4) 2; 5) 3; 6) 1; 7) 1; 8) 3; 9) 3; 10) 4; 11) 1; 12) 4; 13) 2; 14) 2; 15) 3; 16) 3; 17) 3; 18) 3; 19) 4; 20) 5; 21) 1; 22) 1; 23) 2; 24) 4; 25) 3; 26) 4; 27) 3; 28) 4; 29) 3; 30) 3; 31) 2; 32) 2; 33) 3; 34) 2; 35) 1; 36) 1; 37) 4. -
Fortune Favours the Brave
STATEMENT AND CONCLUSIONS Give answer: (A) If only conclusion I follows (B) If only conclusion II follows (C) If either I or II follows (D) If Neither I nor II follows (E) If both I and II follows 1. Statement:No country is absolu-tely self -dependent these days. Conclusions: I. It is impossible to grow and produce all that a country needs. II. Countrymen in general have become lazy. Ans: A 2. Statement: Company 'x' has marked its products, Go ahead and purchase it, if price and quality are your considerations. Conclusions: I. The price of the product must be reasonable. II. The Product must be good in quality. Ans: E 3. Statement: Quality has a price tag. India is allocating lots of funds to education. Conclusions: I. Funding alone can enhance quality of education. II. Quality of education in India would improve soon. Ans: B 4. Statement: Ravi scored 94% marks in the examination. Conclusions: I. Ravi is a bright student. II. Ravi topped in his class. Ans: A 5. Statement: The best way to esc-ape from a problem is to solve it. Conclusion: I. To escape from problems, you should have some solutions with you. II. Your life will be dull if you don't face a problem. Ans: D 6. Statement: Fortune favours the brave. Conclusion: I. Cowards die many times before their death. II. Risks are necessary for success. Ans: B 7. Statement: State Government has agreed in principle to sanction more numbers of posts of primary school teachers in rural and urban areas to reduce the teacher-student ratio. Conclusion: I. Student - teacher ratio in rural areas is higher than that of urban areas. II. Student - teacher ratio in urban areas is higher than that of rural areas. Ans: D 8. Statement: A degree in Management is one of the most wanted degrees. Conclusions: I. A career in Management has a good scope. II. A degree in Management is the first choice of youth in India. Ans: D 9. Statement: The National norm is 100 beds per thousand population but in this state it is 150 beds per thousand. Conclusions: I. The state's health system is taking adequate care in this regard. II. Our national norm is appropriate. Ans: A 10. Statement: Humanity, peace and integrity of mind makes one's life beautiful. Conclusions: I. Merely materialistic people can't have a beautiful life. II. Humanity, peace and integrity of mind are essential for making the life beautiful. Ans: E 11. Statement: Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past. Conclusions: I. There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny. II. Earlier there were less options available to man. Ans: B 12. Statement: The best evidence of India's glorious past is the growing popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in the west. Conclusions: I. Allopathic medicines are more popular in India II. Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in India. Ans: D 13. Statement: These apples are too expensive to be bad. Conclusions: I. The higher the selling price, the superior is the quality of the commodity. II. When apples are in short supply, the prices go up. Ans: A 14. Statement: India's economy is depending mainly on forests. Conclusions: I. India wants only maintenance of forests to improve economic conditions. II. Trees should be preserved to improve Indian economy. Ans: B 15. Statement: Money plays a vital role in politics. Conclusions: I. All the rich men take part in politics. II. The poor can never become politicians. Ans: D 16. Statement: The Indian cement industry has witnessed strong consumption growth during 1999 where in cement consumption grew by 17.5 percent in Apr-Dec 1999 over the levels in the same period in 1998. Conclusions: I. Repair works have been carried out on a massive scale in 1999. II. There has been a marked growth in civil construction in 1999. Ans: C 17. Statement: The union finance minister in his latest budget speech declared that expenditure growth will be curbed and structural changes in the composition of expenditure brought about. Conclusions: I. More than the amount of expenditure, it is its composition that has affected the country's growth. II. Expenditure has begun to take its toll on India's growth. Ans: B 18. Statement: None of the bank unions could comprehend that the information technology wave was unstoppable and unless banks learn to swim along the tide, they would be swept away. Conclusions: I. Information technology is yet to make its impact on the banks. II. There shall come a time when banks will be rendered redundant by the advent of information technology. Ans: D 19. Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practicing to improve and excel well in the field of music. Conclusions: I. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practicing. II. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. Ans: B 20. Statement: The secret of success in constancy of purpose. Conclusions: I. Single - minded devotion is necessary for achieving success. II. Constant dripping wears the stone. Ans: E 21. Statement: The commissioner of police has appealed people not to put up banners which obstruct pedestrian or motor traffic. Conclusions: I. Policemen will have to keep a watchful eye on the new banners which are being put up on the roads. II. Some of the people may respond and will not put up such banners. Ans: B 22. Statement: Globally, one in every twelve jobs is linked with travel and tourism generated activity and this could increase up to one in eleven jobs by 2011. Conclusions: I. Tourism is an important segment of the world's economy, especially in terms of its contribution. II. Tourism has emerged as an economic activity of immense global importance. Ans: E 23. Statement: Several banks which have turned around which have raised their capital adequacy and profitability to healthy levels have since announced plans to return the government equity. Conclusions: I. The additional equity provided by the government to the weak banks helped them regain their health. II. The move is likely to embolden the customer's faith in the banks accountability. Ans: A 24. Statement: International monetary fund forecast an economic recovery in India this year because of a good monsoon. Conclusion: I. Efforts made by the government to check fiscal deficit as well as for an economic reform will witness a new momentum II. Eight perfect percent growth target will not remain elusive Ans: D 25. Statement: A bird in hand is worth two in the bush. Conclusions: I. We should crave for what is not. II. We should be content with what we have. Ans: B 26. Statement: Morning walks are good for health. Conclusions: I. Evening walks are harmful. II. All healthy people go for morning walks. Ans: D 27. Statement: If you are a good artist, then we have definitely a job for you. Conclusions: I. We are in need of a good artist. II. You are a good artist. Ans: A 28. Statement: The interview panel may select a candidate who neither possesses the desired qualification nor the values and attributes. Conclusions: I. The interview test has certain limitations in the matter of selection of candidates. II. The inclusion of specialists on the interview panel does not guarantee that the selection will be proper Ans: E -
రీజనింగ్: నంబరు సిరీస్
Reasoning: NUMBER SERIES Direction: Find the missing number in the following questions. 1. 2, 5, 11, 17, 23, ____ 1) 27 2) 29 3) 31 4) 41 5) None Ans: 3 Sol: Alternate Prime Numbers 2. 79, 313, 547, 781, 1015, ____ 1) 1249 2) 1296 3) 1527 4) 1263 5) 1298 Ans: 1 Sol: +234 (Each term difference) 3. 2, 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ____ 1) 4630 2) 4620 3) 1420 4) 1240 5) 1440 Ans: 5 Sol: ´1, ´2, ´3, ´4, ´5, ´6 ; 240 ´ 6 = 1440 4. 3, 4, 10, 33, 136, ____ 1) 246 2) 656 3) 685 4) 690 5) 835 Ans: 3 Sol: ´1+1, ´2+2, ´3+3, ´4+4, ´ 5+5, 136 ´ 5 + 5 = 685 5. 2, 1, 4, 9, 40, ____ 1) 112 2) 195 3) 68 4) 50 5) None Ans: 2 Sol: ´1–1, ´2+2, ´3–3, ´4+4, ´5–5 6. 16, 8, 8, 12, 24, 60, 180, ____ 1) 540 2) 596 3) 620 4) 630 5) 610 Ans: 4 Sol: ´0.5, ´1, ´1.5, ´2, ´2.5, ´3, ´3.5 180 ´ 3.5 = 630 7. 0, 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, ____ 1) 90 2) 91 3) 100 4) 92 5) None Ans: 2 Sol: (each term difference) +1, +4, +9, +16, +25, +36 8. 0, 7, 26, 63, ____, 215, 342 1) 126 2) 124 3) 125 4) 127 5) 129 Ans: 2 Sol: 13 – 1, 23 – 1, 33 – 1, 43 – 1, 53 – 1, 63 – 1 9. 3, 6, 18, 108, 1944, ____ 1) 2098352 2) 2091653 3) 209952 4) 216542 5) None Ans: 3 Sol: 3 ´ 6 = 18 6 ´ 18=108 18 ´ 108 = 1944 108 ´ 1944 = 209952 Preceeding term multiplication 10. 13, 10, ____, 100, 1003, 1000, 10003 1) 1130 2) 103 3) 130 4) 1030 5) None Ans: 2 Sol: –3, ´10+3, –3, ´10+3, –3, ´10+3 11. 4, 36, 2, 3, 100, 7, 2, ____, 5 1) 81 2) 121 3) 25 4) 64 5) 49 Ans: 5 Sol: (4 + 2)2 = 36 (2+5)2 = 49 12. 120, 440, 960, 1680, ____ 1) 2600 2) 3240 3) 3040 4) 2400 5) 2700 Ans: 1 Sol: 112 – 1, 212 – 1, 312 – 1, 412 – 1, 512 – 1 13. 0, 4, 18, 48, ____, 180 1) 120 2) 150 3) 100 4) 190 5) None Ans: 3 Sol: 13 – 12, 23 – 22, 33 – 32, 43 – 42, 53 – 52, 63 – 62 14. 4, 6, 9, 13.5, ____, 30.375 1) 17.25 2) 21.25 3) 16.25 4) 20.25 5) None Ans: 4 Sol: ´1.5 15. 3, 4.5, 11.5, 38, ____ 1) 156.5 2) 152.5 3) 148.5 4) 147.5 5) 141.5 Ans: 1 Sol: ´1 + 1.5 ´2 + 2.5 ´3 + 3.5 38 ´ 4 + 4.5 = 156.5 16. 5, 11, 24, 51, 106, ____ 1) 217 2) 221 3) 115 4) 122 5) None Ans: 1 Sol: ´2+1, ´2+2, ´2+3, ´2+4, ´2+5 106 ´ 2 + 5 = 217 17. 2, 5, 10, 19, 36, ____ 1) 70 2) 71 3) 68 4) 69 5) 63 Ans: 4 Sol: 18. 70, 71, 76, ____, 81, 86, 90, 91 1) 70 2) 71 3) 80 4) 93 5) 96 Ans: 3 Sol: Pair logic 70, 71, 76, 80, 81, 86, 90, 91, 96 19. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ____, 28, 36 1) 22 2) 21 3) 23 4) 26 5) None Ans: 2 Sol: +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 20. 4, 8, 11, 22, 25, ____ 1) 26 2) 50 3) 28 4) 53 5) 35 Ans: 2 Sol: ´2, +3, ´2, +3, ´2 25 ´ 2 = 50 21. 4, 12, 36, 108, 324 12.5, (a), (b), (c), (d). Find c value. 1) 285.5 2) 312.5 3) 316.5 4) 337.5 5) None Ans: 4 Sol: From the first sequence ´3 Apply same for second sequence 12.5, 37.5, 112.5, 337.5, 1012.5 22. 2, 3, 8, 27, 112 4,(a), (b), (c), (d). Find d value. 1) 160 2) 184 3) 193 4) 156 5) 184 Ans: 1 Sol: ´1+1, ´2+2, ´3+3, ´4+4, ´5+5 4, 5, 12, 39, 160 23. 24, 25, 29, 38, 54 231, (a), (b), (c), (d). What is (a+b) value? 1) 232 2) 236 3) 458 4) 468 5) 510 Ans: 4 Sol: (each term difference) +1, +4, +9, +16 231, 232, 236, 245, 261 a + b = 232 + 236 = 468 24. 18, 100, 294, 648 48, (a), (b), (c), (d). Find c value. 1) 900 2) 800 3) 700 4) 600 5) None Ans: 1 Sol: 33 – 32, 53 – 52, 73–72, 93–92, 43 – 42, 63 – 62, 83 – 82, 103 – 102, 123 – 122 103 – 102 = 900 25. 1536, 384, 96, 24 2048, (a), (b), (c), (d). Find d value. 1) 4 2) 10 3) 12 4) 6 5) 8 Ans: 5 Sol: ÷ 4 26. 0.25, 1, 2.25, 4, 6.25, 9, _____ 1) 11.25 2) 14.25 3) 10 4) 12.25 5) None Ans: 4 Sol: (0.5)2, (1)2, (1.5)2, (2)2, (2.5)2, (3)2, (3.5)2 27. 5, 12, 24, 36, 52, _____ 1) 63 2) 72 3) 79 4) 61 5) 65 Ans: 5 Sol: Sum of consecutive prime numbers 2 + 3 = 5, 5 + 7 = 12, 11 + 13 = 24, 17 + 19 = 36, 23 + 29 = 52, 31 + 34 = 65 28. 119, 46, 20, –2, _____ 1) –3 2) –5 3) –7 4) –1 5) 0 Ans: 3 Sol: 112 – 2, 72 – 3, 52 – 5, 32 – 7, 22 – 11 (Prime Numbers) 29. 841, 729, 576, _____, 225, 81 1) 361 2) 441 3) 529 4) 324 5) 400 Ans: 5 Sol: 30. 2, 1, 1/2, 1/4, _____ 1) 1/3 2) 1/8 3) 2/8 4) 1/16 5) 1/9 Ans: 2 Sol: 4/2 = 2, 2/2 = 1, 1/2 = 1/2, ½/2 = 1/4, ¼ /2 = 1/8 31. 4, 3, 9, 34, 96, 219, _____ 1) 413 2) 298 3) 345 4) 433 5) 438 Ans: 4 Sol: 02 + 4, 12 + 2, 32 + 0, 62 – 2, 102 – 4, 152 – 6, 212 – 8 32. 5, 5, 15, 7, 45, 11, 135, 13, _____ 1) 405 2) 135 3) 255 4) 19 5) 415 Ans: 1 Sol: Alternate Series 33. 2, 3, 10, 39, 172, _____ 1) 645 2) 865 3) 805 4) 810 5) 885 Ans: 5 Sol: 2 × 1 + 12 = 3 3 × 2 + 22 = 10 10 × 3 + 32 = 39 39 × 4 + 42 = 172 172 × 5 + 52 = 885 34. 1, 9, 83, 1027, _____ 1) 1451 2) 15629 3) 11355 4) 152160 5) None Ans: 2 Sol: 12 + 0, 23 + 1, 34 + 2, 45 + 3, 56 + 4 35. 7107, 7321, 7963, 8324, _____ 1) 8756 2) 8972 3) 8545 4) 9109 5) 8375 Ans: 2 Sol: 71 (7 × 1), 73 (7 × 3), 79 (7 × 9), 83 (8 × 3), 89 (8 × 9) Prime Numbers 36. 121, 16, 49, 169, 256, _____ 1) 324 2) 361 3) 196 4) 169 5) None Ans: 4 Sol: (1 + 2 + 1)2 = 42 =16 (1 + 6)2 = 72 = 49 (4 + 9)2 = 132 = 169 (1 + 6 + 9)2 = 162 = 256 (2 + 5 + 6)2 = 132 = 169 37. 13, 16, 25, 40, 61 71,(a), (b), (c), (d) Find c value. 1) 85 2) 98 3) 78 4) 95 5) None Ans: 2 Sol: +3, +9, +15, +21 38. 9, 19, 40, 69, –––– 1) 128 2) 93 3) 121 4) 138 5) 146 Ans: 5 Sol: 22+5, 32+10, 52+15, 72+20, 112 +25 39. 4, 2.5, 3.5, 6.25, 14.5, –––– 1) 38.75 2) 36.45 3) 32.75 4) 36.5 5) 28.75 Ans: 1 Sol: ´0.5+0.5, ´1+1, ´1.5+1.5, ´2+2, ´2.5+2.5 40. 12, 144, 1584, 15840, –––– 1) 141530 2) 141506 3) 142560 4) 175260 5) 142580 Ans:3 Sol: ´12, ´11, ´10, ´9 41. 97, 89, 83, 79, 73, –––– 1) 71 2) 67 3) 69 4) 70 5) None Ans:1 Sol: Prime Numbers 42. 1, 4, 3, 64, 25, ––––, 343, 64, 9 1) 6 2) 95 3) 216 4) 256 5) 120 Ans: 1 Sol: 13, 22, 31, 43, 52, 61, 73, 82, 91 43. 1, 1, 3, 9, 31,–––– 1) 141 2) 129 3) 150 4) 161 5) 170 Ans: 2 Sol: ´0 + 1, ´1 + 2, ´2 + 3, ´3+4, ´4+5 44. 100, 52, 28, 16, 10, –––– 1) 5 2) 7 3) 8 4) 9 5) None Ans: 2 Sold: – 48, –24, –12, –6, –3 45. 242, 393, 4164, –––– 1) 4365 2) 5204 3) 4125 4) 5255 5) 6366 Ans: 4 Sol: -
రీజనింగ్
Analytical Decision Making Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and ans wer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant Manager in an organisation: The candidate must - i) be a graduate in Commerce with at least 55% marks. ii) be either a Chartered Accountant or a postgraduate in Manage-ment/ Commerce. iii) have work experience of at least two years after completing postgraduation/professional qualification. iv) not be more than 30 years of age as on 1 July 2012. v) have scored at least 40% marks in the interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except- a) at (iv) above, but has post-qualification work experience of more than five years, his/her case is to be referred to Senior Vice-President. b) at (ii) above, but is a Cost Accountant and but has at least five years' work experience after completing qualification, his/ her case is to be referred to the President of the organisation. In each of the following questions, information about one candidate is provided and on the basis of the criteria and conditions mentioned above you have to take one of the following course of action. All the information is provided to you as on 1.7.2012. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. Mark answer. 1) If the case is to be referred to the President. 2) If the candidate is not to be selected. 3) if the data provided are inade-quate to take a decision about the candidate. 4) if the candidate is to be selected 5) if the case is to be referred to Senior Vice-President. 1. Rajendra is a postgraduate in Management. He is a Commerce graduate with 58% marks and has scored 60% marks in the interview. He has been working for last three years after comple-ting his postgraduation. His date of birth is 9 May 1983. 2. Deepika has scored 50% marks in the interview. She has been working for last six years after completing her postgradua-tion in Commerce. She was born on 16 June 1982. She has scored 65% marks in graduation in commerce. 3. Yogendra has been working for last four years after completing his Cost Accountancy. He has scored 65% marks in graduation in commerce. He was born on 14 March 1985. He has scored 46% marks in the interview. 4. Pramod is a postgraduate in Management. He has been wor-king for last three years after completing his post graduation at the age of 28. He has scored 66% and 48% marks in BCom and interview respectively. 5. Manju is a postgraduate in Com merce. She has obtained first class in both BCom and postgraduation and has scored 60% marks in the interview. She has been working for last three years after completing her postgraduation. Directions (6-12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization: The candidate must- i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55% marks. ii) have a postgraduate degree/ dip-loma in Marketing Manage ment with at least 60% marks. iii) have post qualification work experience of atleast five years in the marketing division of an organization. iv) have secured atleast 45%marks in the selection examination. v) have secured at least 40%marks in the selection interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except- a) at (iii) above, but has post-qualification work experience of atleast three years as Deputy Marketing Manager, the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing. b) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60%marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to the VP-Marketing. In each question below, details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2010. Mark answer. 1) if the candidate is to be selected 2) if the candidate is not to be selected. 3) if the case is to be referred to GM-Marketing. 4) if the case is to be referred to VP-Marketing. 5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. 6. Nidhi has secured 60%marks in the selection interview and 40% marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an organization for the past eight years after completing her post-graduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. She has secured 59% marks in B.Sc. 7. Navin has secured 56%marks B.A. He has been working in the marketing division of an organization for the past seven years after completing his post graduate degree in marketing management with 62%marks. He has secured 62% marks in the selection examination and 38% marks in the selection interview 8. Sudha has been working for the past four years as Deputy Marketing Manager in an organization after completing her post graduate diploma in marketing management with 65%marks. She has secured 45% marks in both selection examination and selection interview. She has also secured 58% marks in B.com. 9. Manoj has secured 65% marks in B.Sc.& 60%marks in post graduate degree in marketing management. He has also secured 50%marks in both selection examination and selection interview. He has been working in the marketing division of an organization for the past six years after completing his post-graduate degree in marketing. 10. Varsha has secured 59% marks in B.A.She has secured 42% marks in the selection interview and 48% marks in the selection examination. She has been working in the marketing division of an organization for the past seven years after completing her post graduate degree in marketing management with 65% marks. 11. Utpal has been working in the marketing division of an organization for the past seven years after completing his post graduate diploma in marketing management with 65%marks. He is a first class science graduate with 60% marks. He has secured 45% marks in the selection examination and 40% marks in the selection interview. 12. Anitha has been working for the past eight years as in an organization after completing her post graduate diploma in marketing management with 70% marks. She has secured 56% marks in B.A. She has also secured 50% marks in the selection examination and 45% marks in the selection interview. -
రిజనింగ్
ANALOGY & CLASSIFICATION Analogy means similarity i.e. having similar features. Questions on analogy test the ability of a candidate to understand the relationship between two objects and apply the same relationship to find that asked in the question. 1. "Cub" is related to "Lion" in the same way as "Bunny" is related to? 1) Horse 2) Cattle 3) Kangaroo 4) Rabbit 5) Eel A: 4 The young one of Lion is called cub. In the same way bunny is the young one of rabbit. 2. "Japan" is related to "Diet" in the same way as "Iran" is related to? 1) Majlis 2) National Assembly 3) Althing 4) Shergo 5) Peoples's National Assembly A: 1 The parliament of Japan is called Diet. Similarly the parliament of Iran is called Majlis. 3. "Spade" is related to "dig" in the same way as "Shove" is related to? 1) Carve 2) Scoop 3) Grip 4) Amplify 5) Grind A: 2 Spade is used to dig the soil. Similarly Shove is used to scoop the material. 4. Wax : Candle : : ? : Paper? 1) Tree 2) Bamboo 3) Pulp 4) Wood 5) Stationery A: 3 Candle is made up of wax. Simi-larly, paper is made up of pulp. 5. "Pedology" is related to "Soil" in the same way as "Petrology" is related to? 1) Rock 2) Petrol 3) Fossil 4) Plants 5) Fuel A: 1 Pedology is the study of Soil. Similarly, Petrology is the study of rocks. 6. "Hygrometer" is related to "Humidity" in the same way as "Odometer" is related to? 1) Odour 2) Colour 3) Speed 4) Intensity 5) Current A: 3 Hygrometer is the instrument for measuring humidity. Similarly Odometer is an instrumment for measuring speed. 7. "Force" is related to "Newton" in the same way as "Pressure" is related to? 1) Pascal 2) Barometer 3) Degrees 4) Joule 5) Density A: 1 Newton is the unit of Force. In the same way Pascal is the unit of Pressure. 8. "Abduct" is related to "Kidnap" in the same way as "Presage" is related to? 1) Prepare 2) Mend 3) Predict 4) Stage 5) Homely A: 3 Abduct is the synonym of Kidnap. Similarly, Presage is the synonym of Predict. 9. Select the related pair of words: Peccadillo : Crime :: ? 1) Manger : Clerk 2) Peon : Clerk 3) Hesitate : Procrastinate 4) Sheriff : Crime 5) None of these A: 3 Peccadillo is an offence of lesser intensity while Crime is an offence of higher intensity. Similarly, Hesitate is a word of lesser intensity while Procrasti-nate is a word of higher intensity. 10. "Tetanus" is related to "Bacteria" in the same way as "Rabies" is related to? 1) Algae 2) Fungus 3) Virus 4) Protozoa 5) Fly A: 3 Tetanus is caused by Bacteria. Similarly, Rabies is caused by Virus. 11. "Bud" is related to "Flower" in the same way as "Seed" is related to? 1) Earth 2) Fruit 3) Water 4) Plant 5) Oil A: 4 Bud is grown to become a flower. Similarly Seed is grown into plant. 12. "Reasoning" is related to "Mental" in the same way as "Physical" is related to? 1) Singing 2) Feeling 3) Caning 4) Seeing 5) Hearing A: 3 Reasoning is a mental activity. In the same way Caning is a physical activity. 13. "Communicable disease" is related to "Malaria" in the same way as "Non-communicable disease" is related to? 1) Tuberculosis 2) Hepatitis 3) AIDS 4) Cancer 5) Rabies A: 4 Malaria is a communicable disease whereas Cancer is a non-communicable disease. 14. "Dismay" is related to "Joy" in the same way as "Tend" is related to? 1) Regret 2) Ignore 3) Negligible 4) Spoil 5) Attend A: 2 The antonym of Joy is Dismay. Similarly the antonym of Tend is Ignore. 15. A "Square" is related to "Cube" in the same way as a "Circle" is related to? 1) Sphere 2) Circumference 3) Diameter 4) Area 5) Radius A: 1 Corresponding 3-dimensional figure to a Square is Cube. Simil-arly corresponding 3- dimensional figure to Circle is Sphere. 16. "Hear" is related to "Deaf" in the same way as "Speak" is related to? 1) Speech 2) Dumb 3) Silent 4) Quiet 5) Calm A: 2 A Deaf person cannot Hear. Similarly, a Dumb person cannot Speak. 17. "Prairies" is related to "North America" in the same way as "Downs" is related to? 1) Australia 2) France 3) Canada 4) Russia 5) South Africa A: 1 The grasslands of North America are called Prairies. Similarly, the grasslands of Australia are called Downs. 18. "Talk" is related to "Speak" in a certain way. Similarly, "Honest" is related to "Truthful". Following the same logic, "Listen" is related to? 1) Music 2) Ears 3) Hear 4) Ignore 5) Sound A: 3 Talk and Speak are synonyms. Honest and Truthful are synonyms. Similarly Listen and Hear are synonyms. Classification is a process of grouping various objects on the basis of their common properties. Questions on classification are designed to test candidates ability to classify given objects and find one which does not share the common property. Types of Classification: (1) Word classification (2) Alphabet classification (3) Number classification (4) Miscellaneous classification Directions (19-30): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 19. 1) Red 2) Blue 3) Yellow 4) Green 5) Colour A: 5 Colour is a category, remaining four are the elements of that country. 20. 1) Birds 2) Sparrow 3) Dove 4) Pigeon 5) Parrot A: 1 Bird is a category, all the others are the animals of that category. 21. 1) Wall 2) Ceiling 3) Floor 4) Terrace 5) Bungalow A: 5 Except Bungalow, all the other are parts of the Bungalow. 22. 1) India 2) Egypt 3) Country 4) Brazil 5) Algeria A: 3 Except Country, remaining four are different countries. 23. 1) Silk 2) Nylon 3) Jute 4) Cotton 5) Wool A: 2 Nylon is an artificial fibre. Remaining four are natural fibres. 24. 1) Lotus 2) Lily 3) Rose 4) Cauliflower 5) Marigold A: 4 Cauliflower is a vegetable, remaining are flowers. 25. 1) Walk 2) Cry 3) Play 4) Study 5) Alive A: 5 Walk, Cry, Play and Study are actions, but Alive is not an action. 26. 1) Heavy 2) High 3) Short 4) Low 5) Tall A: 1 Except Heavy, remaining four are used to compare the height. 27. 1) F 6 R 18 2) H 8 O 15 3) L 12 K 11 4) U 21 W 23 5) P 15 Q 17 A: 5 Except in option (5), in each group a letter is followed by its position in the English alphabetical series. 28. 1) Repair 2) Mend 3) Correct 4) Rectify 5) Trouble A: 5 Except Trouble, remaining four are synonyms to each other. 29. 1) Employed 2) Trained 3) Hired 4) Appointed 5) Commissioned A: 2 Except Trained, remaining four have the same meaning. 30. 1) Quick 2) Brisk 3) Quiet 4) Fast 5) Rapid A: 3 Except Quiet, remaining four are synonyms. 31. Four of the following five are alike on the bases of being divisible by a particular number and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? 1) 21 2) 91 3) 65 4) 77 5) 35 A: 3 Except 65, remaining four are divisible by 7. Directions (32-36): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the position of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 32. 1) KLNI 2) UVXS 3) CDFA 4) FGID 5) QROT A: 5 Except in option (5), in each of the remaining four options, one letter is missing between the fourth and the first, second letter is next to the first and one letter is missing between the third and the fourth. 33. 1) ABCDEFGR 2) ABX 3) ABCDEU 4) ABCW 5) ABCDEFT A: 1 Except in option (1), in the set of consecutive letters, the last letter is substituted by the respective positional letter from the right end 34. 1) DEI 2) FGM 3) BCE 4) IJR 5) EFK A: 4 Except in option (4), the position of the third letter = position of the first letter + position of the second letter. 35. 1) OPKL 2) TUXY 3) YZUV 4) MNIJ 5) FGBC A: 2 Except in option (2), in each of the remaining options, the fourth letter is next to the third letter, two letters are missing between fourth and first letter. 36. 1) TVQ 2) DFB 3) HJE 4) LNI 5) PRM A: 2 Except in option (2), in each of the remaining options, two letters are missing between the third letter and the first letter. -
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Alphabet & Alpha-Numeric Symbol Sequence Questions on alphabet are based on the position of the letters of English Alphabet. There are 26 letters in English Alphabet with 'A'-taking 1st position. 'B' - 2nd position and so on 'Z' takes the 26th position. Similarly 'Z' takes the 1st position, 'Y'-2nd position and so on 'A' takes the 26th position. So the sum of the positions of any letter from the left end and from the right end is equal to 27. A candidate is advised to remember positions of letters from the left end and if the position is to be found from right end subtract its position from left end from 27. Practice Questions: Directions (Q.1-5): Study the following arrangement of consonants, vowels, numbers and symbols carefully and answer the questions given below: H @ F ! 3 U 6 % G I T P L 8 $ ^ 9 S 2 7 & A M K + J © D 4 # 5 & E 1. Which of the following is ninth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) K 2) M 3)U 4) A 5) None of these A: 2 The element which is ninth to the right of the twentieth from the right end will be 20 – 9 = 11th from the right end. The element 11th from right end in the above arrangement is 'M'. 2. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three A: 3 If a consonant (C) is immediately preceded by a symbol (S) and immediately followed by a symbol (S) then the sequence looks like SCS. Such occurrences in the above arrangements are: @ F !, + J ©. i.e. there are two such occurrences. 3. If all the symbols are dropped from the arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end? 1) 9 2) 2 3) S 4) 7 5) None of these A: 1 If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, then the symbols should not be counted while counting the twelfth position. So the first twelve elements are : H F 3 U 6 G I T P L 8 9. The twelfth from left end in the resulting sequence is 9. 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 1) L$8 2) AKM 3) @!F 4) 6%G 5) JD© A: 4 In each of the groups L$8, AKM, @!F and JD© the second and third elements are second and first to the right of the first element respectively, but in 6%G the same sequence is not followed. Hence 6%G does not belong to the group. 5. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? F3U % IT L $^ ? 1) 927 2) 7$A 3) 7AM 4) 2&A 5) 27& A: 3 Take the first elements in each group: F, %, L. There are four elements between F and % and five elements between % and L. Therefore there should be six elements between L and next element. So the first element of next group is 7. In each of F3U, %IT, L$^ the second and third elements are second and third to the right of first element in the above sequence. The elements second and third to the right of 7 in the above sequence are A and M. The group which should come in place of ? is 7AM. Directions (6-10): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: Y F Y W X V W Y W V F Y Z W X Y V Z X W Z V Y Z F Z X W Y X Z X 6. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in bold in the above arrangement, each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three A: 5 Taking the backward direction i.e. counting from right to left, the pairs of letters satisfying the above condition are Z W X Y V ZX, ZV and XV Taking the forward direction i.e. counting from left to right, the pairs of letters satisfying the above condition are Z W X Y V WX, WY and XY Total there are six such pairs. 7. Which of the following is the eleventh to the left of twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement? 1) X 2) V 3) W 4) Y 5) Z A: 3 The element eleventh to the left of the twentieth from left end will be 20 - 11 = 9th from the left end. The ninth element from the left end in the above arrangement is 'W'. 8. How many meaningful words can be formed with the alphabets which are first, second, fifth and sixth from the left end of the above arrangement? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three A: 1 The first, second, fifth and sixth elements are Y, F, X and V. No word can be formed by using the above four letters. 9. How many such Ys are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant? 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) None 5) More than three A: 5 If Y is preceded as well as followed by a consonant then it should not be preceded or followed by 'V'. Total there are six Y's (except the first one). Out of six Y's the fourth is followed by Y and fifth is preceded by V. So total there are 6–2=4Y's satisfying the above condition. 10. If all Z's are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be seventh from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) V 2) X 3) W 4) F 5) None of these A: 5 If all the Z's are dropped the arrangement from right end while …… Y F X W Y X X. The seventh from right end will be Y. Directions (Q. 11-13): The following questions are based on the five three letter words given below: FAN HOP GET CUB MID Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words) 11. If the positions of the first and second letters of all the words are interchanged, how many words will form meaningful English words? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three A: 1 If the first and second letters are interchanged, the words will be AFN, OHP, EGT, UCB and IMD. But none of them has a meaning. So no word satisfies the condition. 12. If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), howmany words will remain unchanged? 1) Two 2) Three 3) One 4) None 5) More than three A: 3 If the letters of the word are arranged alphabetically the order of letters will not change in the word 'HOP'. So one word remai-ns unchanged. 13. If the first letter of all the words is changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel? (Same or different vowel) 1) None 2) Three 3) Two 4) More than three 5) One A: 5 If the first letter of all words is changed to next letter of the English alphabetical series, then only H out of F, H, G, C and M will be changed to I. So only one word will have more than one vowel. 14. In the following series how ma-ny consonants come before 3? 3 A 3 F 4 T 7 U 3 S 3 T T 3 J J 3 4 5 3 D X 3 X Z 3 T 3 H 1) 7 2) 6 3) 5 4) 8 5) None of these A: 2 The instances where consonants come before 3 are S3, T3, J3, X3, Z3 and T3. Therefore 6 consonants come before 3. 15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word NEUTRAL, each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series? 1) Two 2) Three 3) None 4) One 5) More than three A: 2 N E U T R A L Total 3 pairs of letters satisfy the given condition. 16. Which of the following will come next in the following series? a z a b y a b c x a b c d w a b c d 1) f 2) u 3) a 4) v 5) e A: 5 First letter of the English alphabet is followed by the first letter from the right end, then first two letters of the English alphabet are followed by the second letter from the right end, first three letters of the English alphabet are followed by the third letter from the right end and so on. So the letter which continues the logic is 'e'. 17. Which of the following will come next in the following series? 0 9 0 1 9 0 1 2 9 0 1 2 3 9 0 1 2 3 4 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 1) 0 2) 6 3) 9 4) 7 5) 4 A: 2 First number of the whole number system is followed by 9, followed by first two numbers followed by 9 and so on. Therefore, the digit which continues the logic is 6 -
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INPUT-OUTPUT Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) Input: tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn Step I: 13 tal1 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt Step II: 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt bam Step III: 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high Step IV: 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar Step V: 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise Step VI: 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall Step VII: 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Analysis: On observing the last step it is observed that numbers are arranged in the descending order from left end and the words are arranged in the alphabetical order after the numbers from the left end. The first six steps reveal that one number and one word are arranged in the respective order in each step. Each time the remaining number/ numbers are pushed to the right. The smallest number comes to the left end and the word which comes first in the alphabetical order goes to the right end. The next number adds to the left end and the next word adds to the right end. Questions: Input: 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) 1. Which step number is the following output? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink 1) Step V 2) Step VI 3) Step IV 4) Step III 5) There is no such step. A: 5. There will no such step. On observing the given output, the numbers 32, 27 and 14 are in descending order. This indicates the III step of output. But in the III step the last three words will be 'best, feet, ink'. But in the given output the last three words are 'feet, best, ink'. For the given input, the given output can't be any step. 2. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V? 1) 1 2) 92 3) feet 4) best 5) why A: 4. In the V step, the first five numbers are arranged in descending order and five words are arranged in the reverse alphabetical order from the right end or alphabetical order from the left end. So the word in the 5th position from the right end will be 'best'. 3. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between 'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output? 1) One 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) Seven A: 2. The last step of output for the given input will be 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why The elements between 'feet' and '32' are 27, 14 and best. So the number of elements is 3. -
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Reasoning Directions(Q.1-4): Five friends Lokesh, Manoj, Gopal, Raveesh and Rohit have agreed to work together on a part-time job offered by a local restaurant. The restaurant opens 5 days a week and this group have following schedules when they can work. * Neeraj and Raveesh can work on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday * Raveesh and Rohit can work on Monday, Wednesday and Thursday * Rohit and Lokesh can work on Monday, Friday and Thursday * Lokesh and Manoj can work on Friday, Tuesday and Thursday. * Neeraj and Manoj can work on Friday, Tuesday and Wednesday. Based on the above passage, answer the following questions. 1. Which one of the five friends cannot work on Thursday? a) Neeraj b) Raveesh c) Rohit d) Lokesh e) Manoj 2. Which is the one who cannot work on Tuesday? a) Neeraj b) Raveesh c) Rohit d) Lokesh e) Manoj 3. Name the person who cannot work on Friday? a) Neeraj b) Rohit c) Manoj d) Raveesh e) Lokesh 4. Name the person who cannot work on Monday? a) Rohit b) Manoj c) Raveesh d) Lokesh e) Neeraj Answers(1-4): To answer this kind of questions, tabulating the given information is very useful. * People working on monday- Neeraj, Raveesh, Rohit and Lokesh. * People working on Tuesday- Neeraj, Raveesh, Lokesh and Manoj * People working on Wednesday - Neeraj, Raveesh, Rohit and Manoj * People working on Thursday - Raveesh, Rohit, Lokesh and Manoj * People working on Friday - Rohit, Lokesh, Manoj and Neeraj 1. Ans: a. From the above table, it is clear that Neeraj Cannot work on Thursday. 2. Ans: c. Rohit Cannot work on Tuesday. 3. Ans: d. Raveesh Cannot work on Friday. 4. Ans: b. Manoj cannot work on Monday. Directions(Q.5-7): Four couples are invited to a dinner party. They will be seated at a circular table. Follo- wing are the seating conditions. * Geeta refuses to sit next to Ali * Lata wants to sit in between Tilak and Hari * Champa refuses to sit next to Farooq * Niti is seated on Ali's right hand side * Farooq and Tilak are seated exactly opposite to each other * The seating arrangement is such that one women is always between two men. 5. Which of the following is the only possible seating arrange-ment to suit the above condi-tions? a) Niti is to the right of Tilak b) Lata is in between Geeta and Farooq c) Champa is opposite to Geeta d) Farooq is adjacent to Champa e) Ali is to the right of Geeta 6. Which of the following combi- nations is not as per the instru- cted sitting arrangement? a) Geeta, Farooq, Lata b) Ali, Champa, Tilak c) Hari, Lata, Tilak d) Farooq, Niti, Ali e) Hari, Geeta, Farooq 7. Which of the following state-ments are correct? I. Ali is on Champa's right II. Lata is on Tilak's left III. Farooq is between Niti and Geeta 1) I 2) II 3) III 4) Answers(5-7): Male members: Ali, Tilak, Hari and Farooq Female members: Geeta, Lata, Champa and Niti. From the given data the seating arrangement of the 4 couples is as follows. 5. Ans: c. From the above arrangement, it is clear that Champa and Geeta are exactly opposite. 6. Ans: a. Geeta, Farooq, Lata are not seated in this order. 7. Ans: e. From the above arrangement, it is clear that Ali is on Champa's right, Lata is on Tilak's left and Farooq is between Niti and Geeta. Directions(Q.8-12): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions. l Six friends p,q,r,s,t and u are members of a club and play a different game of Football, Cricket, Tennis, Basket ball, Badminton and Volleyball. * 'T' who is taller than 'P' and 'S' plays Tennis. * The tallest among them plays Basketball * The shortest among them plays Volleyball * 'Q'&'S' neither plays Volleyball nor Basketball * 'R' plays Volleyball * 'T' is between Q who plays Football and 'P' in order of height 8. What does 'S' play? a) Football b) Either cricket or Badminton c) Cricket d) Badminton e) None of these 9. Who among them is taller than 'R' but shorter than P? a) T b) Data inadequate c) Q d) U e) None of these 10. Which of the following state-ments is not true? a) 'T' is taller than 'R' b) 'U' is taller than 'Q' c) 'P' is shorter than 'R' d) 'Q' is taller than 'S' e) 'S' is taller than 'P' 11. Who among the following plays Basketball? a) S b) U c) Q d) K e) None of these 12. Who will be at the third place if they are arranged in descen- ding order of their height? a) T b) Q c) P d) S e) None of these Answers(8-12): From the given information, it is clear that 'R' plays Volleyball, 'T' plays Tennis and 'Q' plays Football. 'S' plays either Cricket or Badminton. Order of Heights Q>T>P and T>P&S Q>T>P> S>P (\R is the shortest) The tallest person shall plays Basketball, so it is only 'U' who can play Basketball. Hence 'P' also plays either Cricket or Badminton. Tabulating the above information... Name Game Rank in Height U Basketball 1 Q Football 2 T Tennis 3 P Cricket & 4 S Badminton 5 R Volley ball 6 8. Ans: b. 'S' plays either cricket or Badminton 9. Ans: e. 'S' is taller than 'R' but shorter than 'P' 10. Ans: c. From the above table, it is clear that 'P' is taller than 'R' 11. Ans: b. 'U' Plays Basketball. 12. Ans: a. From the table, it is clear that 'T' is third from top if they are arranged in descending order. Directions(Q.13): Persons X,Y,Z and Q live in red, green, yellow and blue coloured houses not necessarily in the same order. 'Z' lives in a yellow house. The green house is adjacent to the blue house. 'X' does not live adjacent to 'Z'. The yellow house is in between the green and red houses. The colour of the house X lives in is _______ a) blue b) green c) red d) can't be determined Ans: a. From the given information, Z lives in a yellow house, Which is in between green and red houses. and also 'X' is not adjacent to 'Z'. Therefore 'X' lives in blue house. Directions(Q.14): Five persons with names P, M, U, T and 'X' live separately in A palace, a hut, a fort, a house, a hotel. Each one likes two different colours from among the Blue, Black, Red, Yellow, Green. 'U' likes red and blue. 'T' likes black. The person living in a palace does not like black or blue. 'P' likes blue and red. 'M' likes yellow. 'X' lives in a hotel. 14. 'M' lives in a –––––? a) hut b) fort c) palace d) house Ans: c. Given information can be tabulated as follows. Person: U T P M X Colours: Red/ Black Blue/ Yellow – Blue Red It is given that the person living in palace does not like black or blue. so U, T and P cannot live in palace. Also it is given that 'X' lives in a hotel. Therefore the only person left over is 'M' and he lives in palace. -
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Reasoning based on logic contains of the following topics.. Statements And Assumptions: Questions of this type are a regular feature of all the competitive examinations, these days. In these questions, a statement is followed by two or more assumptions. The candidate is required to assess the given statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit in the statement. To understand the pattern of these questions, it is very essential to know what the terms statement and assumption stand for. Whenever we communicate with others, we make several statements. Therefore, statement is a part of our speech or what we speak to others. In the process of communication, most of the ideas remain unuttered. As a result, these ideas may not find expression in the statement. However, this unuttered message is very much implied in a statement. Implied, an assumption is something that can be supposed or assumed on the basis of a given statement. Statements And Course Of Action: Course of action is a decision which a person makes invariably in his life following a problem. In these questions a problem is given in the form of a statement and is followed by two or more decisions in the form of course of action. For solving these questions, remember the following points: 1. Correct course of action should either lessen the problem or improve the situation created by the problem. 2. Simple problem must have simple course of action and not a complex one which may create more problems than to solve or reduce it. 3. Course of action should be feasible and should relate with the practical aspect of life Cause and Effect: Any occurrence of incident definitely has a cause behind it. The occurrence is called event and the reason behind this occurrence is its cause. l Principal Cause: This is major condition that governs occurrence or non occurrence of an event. Though only its presence does not guarantee happening of that event (as event might need some more occurrences too) but its absence would definitely lead to non-occurrence of this event. l Immediate Cause: This is the condition that triggers the event, so is an important cause that has just happened before occurrence of an event, and caused the event to happen. l Principal and Immediate cause: Generally, examinations have questions to find principal and immediate cause. These are causes that are most proximate in time and one of the most important reasons for the occurrence of this 'event'. Statements and Arguments: Question based on statement and arguments are the common features of all competitive examinations. In these questions a statement is followed by two arguments. Candidates are required to distinguish between the strong and weak arguments. Generally, both the arguments are contrary to each other and refer to the positive and negative results of the action as mentioned in the statement. A strong argument is that which touches the practical and real aspect of the situation as described in the statement. A weak argument is very simple, superfluous, ambiguous and long drawn one. Following points should be taken into consideration while choosing a strong argument. 1. A strong argument should give the realistic diagnosis while choosing a strong argument. 2. A strong argument should be the deep analysis of the topic dealt within the statement. 3. A strong argument should relate with the statement and be supported up by facts or established notations. 4. A strong argument should not be mere reiteration of the situation given in the statement. 5. Statements and Inferences: An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts. Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions: The convenience of online shopping is what I like best about it. Where else can you shop even at midnight wearing your night suit? You do not have to wait in a line or wait till the shop assistant is ready to help you with your purchases. It is a much better experience as compared to going to a retail store. - A consumer's view 1. Which of the following can be a strong argument in favour of retail store owners? 1) Online shopping portals offer a great deal of discounts which retail stores offer only during the sale season. 2) One can compare a variety of products online which cannot be done at retail stores. 3) Many online shopping portals offer the 'cash on delivery' feature which are sceptical about online payments. 4) Many consumers prefer shopping at retail stores which are nearer to their houses. 5) In online shopping the customer may be deceived as he cannot touch the product he is paying for. A: 5; The argument in favour of the retail store owners should highlight short-comings or disadvantages of the online shopping and same is effectively done by the argument given in option (5). 2. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information) 1) One can shop online only at night. 2) Those who are not comfortable using computers can never enjoy the experience of online shopping. 3) All retail stores provide shopping assistants to each and every customer. 4) The consumer whose view is presented has shopped at retail stores as well as online. 5) The consumer view is presented does not have any retail stores in her vicinity. A: 4; The statement given by the consumer highlights the advantages of online shopping in comparison to shopping in a retail store. Therefore it can be inferred that the consumer has shopped at both retail stores and on online. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question: Many manufacturing companies are now shifting base to the rural areas of the country as there is a scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts say that this shift will not have a huge impact on the prices of the products manufactured by these companies as only about 30% consumers live in urban areas. 3. Which of the following may be a consequence of the given information? 1) The prices of such products will decrease drastically in the urban areas. 2) People living in urban areas will not be allowed to work in such manufacturing companies. 3) These manufacturing companies had set-ups in the urban areas before shifting base. 4) Those who had already migrated to the urban areas will not shift back to rural areas. 5) The number of people migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs may reduce . A: 5; As the manufacturing companies are shifting their base to rural areas, the educated and eligible rural youth will get the jobs in rural areas thereby reducing the migration to urban areas. Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions: Despite repeated announcements that mobile phones were not allowed in the examination hall, three students were caught with their mobile phones. A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features and it is easy to cheat with their help. B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the mobile phones and ask the students to leave the exam hall immediately. C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe. D) There have been incidents where students who left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones kept in the bags of the students who were writing the exam. E) The school authorities must ask the students to leave their phones in the custody of the invigilator before the exam in order to avoid thefts of mobile phones. F) None of the other students were carrying their phones in the exam hall. 4. Which of the following among A, B, E and F may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before the exam? 1) Only B 2) Both B& E 3) Only F 4) Only A 5) Both E & F A: 4; As the mobile phones have a lot of features, the students can cheat in the examination by getting the answers through the tools using internet and google search engines. This is the reason behind such announcement. 5. Which of the following among A, B, D and F can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator? 1) Only B 2) Both A & D 3) Only A 4) Both D & F 5) Only F A: 1; As the most practical solution is asking the students to deposit the mobile phones with the invigilator or else confiscate the same whenever they enter.
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