TV
K.V. Gnana Kumar
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కరెన్సీ స్వాప్ ఒక నిర్వహణ పరికరం?
Banks Special 1. Which of the following banks has recently introduced mobile banking service for its customers, to commemorate 50 years of its journey in the Indian financial sector? a) Union Bank of India b) IDBI Bank c) Kerala Grameena Bank d) Karur vysya Bank e) ICICI Bank 2. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage? a) Interest rate risk b) Currency risk c) Currency and interest rate risk d) Cash inflows in different currencies e) All of the above 3. The RBI widened infrastructure sector lending sub-category recently. Which of the following sectors qualify for infrastructure sector lending? a) Communication b) Water and sanitation c) Energy d) Transport e) All the above 4. Expand the term IMPS. a) Immediate Mobile Payment Service b) Inter-Mobile Payment Service c) International Mobile Payment Service d) Instant Payment Service e) None of these 5. Doha Bank , which has been sanctioned licence to start its operations in India, belongs to which of the following countries? a) Kuwait b) Iran c) Bahrain d) Qatar 6. CAPART (Council for Advancement of People's Action and Rural Technology) is associated with which of the following? a) Energy Sector b) Rural Development c) Infrastructure d) Foreign Trade e) None of these 7. How many alphabets will be there in PAN CARD provided by Income Tax Department? a) Four b) Five c) Seven d) Three e) SIX 8. Which of the following banks has recently approved 30 million US dollars loan to Assam which will help it in its drive to eliminate power sector inefficiencies that are hurting its consumers, its world-famous tea industry, and its environment? a) World Bank b) Asian Development Bank c) Yes Bank d) Indian Bank e) All of the above 9. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India? a) Banking Regulation Act b) Essential Commodities Act c) RBI Regulation Act d) RBI and Banking Regulation Act e) None of these 10. Which of the following companies will be provided equity investment of 50 million US dollars by The Asian Development Bank ? a) Tata Power b) NTPC c) ReNew Power Ventures Private Limited d) NHPC e) None of these 11. Which of the following can be obtained only from a bank? a) Demand draft b) Postal Stamps c) Judicial Stamp Papers d) Birth Certificates e) All of these 12. SBI has launched six digital branches across the country as part of its programme to offer next generation banking solutions. What is the name given to these digital branches? a) SBI Digital b) SBI Intouch c) SBI Tech d) Digi SBI e) None of these 13. C Rangarajan Committee has recently submitted its report on which of the following matters? a) Sanitation b) Food c) Poverty d) Education e) All of these 14. Which among the following committee is set up for giving clear definitions to FDI and FII with an aim to remove ambiguity over the two types of foreign investments? a) Gopinath committee b) Subir Gokarn committee c) Arvind Mayaram committee d) Sushma Nath committee e) None of these 15. The erstwhile UTI Bank is presently known as: a) ING Vaisya Bank b) Yes Bank c) Indus Ind Bank d) Axis Bank e) IDBI 16. The abbreviation UIDAI stands for a) Unique Identification Division of All India b) Unique Identification Department of Ancient India c) Unique Identity Division of Ancient India d) Unique Identification Authority of India e) None of these 17. Ms.Christine Lagarde is holding which of the following positions at present? a) Chief of Asian Development Bank b) Chief of International Monetary Fund c) Chancellor of Germany d) Chief of Morgan Stanley e) Chief of World Bank 18. It is mandatory to quote the following identification number on all large value financial transactions. a) PAN number b) Voter ID c) PIN d) Ration Card Number e) Phone Number 19. Which of the following is NOT a Banking or Finance Company? a) Barclay b) Luftansa c) BNP Paribas d) American Express e) HSBC 20. Which of the following is the part of the name of a Public Sector Bank in India? a) Jindal b) Gokhale c) Jaipuria d) Tata e) Dena 21. MMID is a 7 digit number issued by a bank against an account linked to a mobile number. What is the full form of MMID? a) Middle Management in Defence b) Micro and Medium Industries Development c) Money Market in Delhi d) 'Mobile Money Identifier' e) None of the above Key 1) b; 2) d; 3) e; 4) a; 5) d; 6) b; 7) e; 8) b; 9) a; 10) c; 11) a; 12) b; 13) c; 14) c; 15) d; 16) d; 17) b; 18) a; 19 b 20) e; 21) d. -
మార్కెటింగ్ కాన్సెప్ట్ యొక్క పిల్లర్?
1. Marketing for promotion of business in Banks involves: a) Better Customer Service b) Customer needs identification c) Customized products d) Both a and c e) a, b and c 2. Which is the pillar of Marketing Concept? a) Financial Planning and control b) Customer Orientation c) Plant d) Fixed Cost e) Sales 3. Which of the following Bank is based on new marketing concept? a) Union Bank of India b) State Bank of India c) UCO Bank d) PNB e) All of the above 4. Marketing Concept earns the profit with ___ a) Customer Satisfaction of Bank b) Staff c) Product d) Building e) ATM 5. Marketing is not required for one of the following products ____? a) Export Business b) Corporate Loan c) Import Business d) Credit Card Business e) None of these 6. In terms of marketing what does "Motivation" means: a) Satisfying Customer b) Better communication skills c) Sales Coaching d) Market Research e) Inspiring employees to perform better 7. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Service Industry? a) Inseparability b) Perceptibility c) Intangibility d) Heterogeneity e) Perishability 8. What does the term CRM stands for in terms of marketing? a) Consume resource manager b) Current Report Manager c) Customer relationship management d) Cross relationship management e) None of these 9. Find the correct statement: a) Marketing is redundant in monopolistic companies b) The performance of a salesperson depends on the amount of incentives paid c) Marketing is influenced by peer performance d) An increase in market shares indicates fall in business volume e) A mission statement is part of the Company's Prospectus 10. Which of the following method is specifically used for increasing the short term sale of the goods? a) Advertising b) Sales Promotion c) Publicity d) Public Relations e) None 11. The key point of Customer Delight is: a) Selling maximum products b) Employing maximum DSAs c) Timely delivery of superior value to customers d) Being rigid to changes e) Adopting shot-term vision 12. Online Marketing is the function of which of the following? a) Purchase section b) Production Department c) IT Department d) Design Section e) A collective function of all staff 13. Marketing channels means ___ a) delivery objects b) sales target c) delivery outlets d) delivery boys e) sales teams 14. Advertising for ____ is not allowed on T.V. a) Liquor b) Cigarettes c) Both a and b d) Soaps e) None of these 15. In the context of globalization, BPO means ___ a) British Petroleum Organization b) British Passport Office c) Business Process Outsourcing d) Business Process Orientation e) All of the above 16. Acid Test of a brand is ___ a) Brand preference b) Brand awareness c) Brand loyalty d) Brand equity e) Brand acceptability 17. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is called as a/an __ a) Transaction b) Exchange c) Relationship d) Value e) None of these 18. A company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match is known as its ___ a) Attribute competition b) Attribute positioning c) Brand image d) Competitive advantage e) Brand positioning 19. Joining with any other company to produce or market product for a specific project or service is called ___ a) Direct exporting b) Indirect exporting c) Licensing d) Joint-Venturing e) None of these 20. A ___ is a name, term, sign, symbol or design or a combination of these that identifies the Company Name which is selling of a product or service. a) Product feature b) Sponsorship c) Brand d) Logo e) None of these 21. In marketing terms Attitude can best be defined as a ___ a) Rude behavior of Salesperson b) Rude behavior of consumer c) Mental state of consumer d) Ego of the marketing executive e) None of these 22. The long term objective of marketing is ___ a) Customer satisfaction b) Profit maximization c) Cost cutting d) Profit maximization through customer satisfaction e) None of these 23. A marketing technique where marketer plays a specific role in an untapped segment is called: a) Mass Marketing b) Niche marketing c) Strategic Marketing d) Communication Marketing e) None of these 24. In Market segmentation which among the following is not an economic component? a) Age b) Gender c) Both a and b d) Income level e) Taxes 25. Marketing is ____ a) an ancient concept b) a modern concept c) a continuous affair d) a team effort e) None of these 26. The sequence of a sales process is ___ a) Lead generation, call, presentation & sale b) Sales, presentation, lead generation, call c) Lead generation, call, sale & present station d) There is no sequence required e) None of these 27. Marketers should view packaging as a major strategic tool, especially for - a) Consumer Convenience products b) Industrial products c) Consumer shopping products d) Specialty products e) None of these 28. What is M-marketing? a) Mobile Marketing b) Management Marketing c) Model Marketing d) Modern Marketing e) Mind Marketing 29. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase "a good product will sell itself" is characteristic of the ____ period. a) Production b) Sales c) Marketing d) Relationship e) None of these 30. In the relationship marketing firms focus on ___ relationships with ___. a) short term; customers and suppliers b) long term; customers and suppliers c) short term; customers d) long term; customers e) None of these 31. Political campaigns are generally examples of ___. a) Cause marketing b) Organization marketing c) Event marketing d) Personal marketing e) None of these 32. Which of the following is NOT a part of 'Product Life Cycle'? a) Introduction b) Growth c) Maturity d) Inflation e) Decline 33. ____ defined Marketing as 'Marketing is concerned with the people and activities involved in the flow of goods and services from producer to consumer'. a) American Marketing Association b) UK institute of Marketing c) University of Regina d) Harvard Law School e) University of Chicago 34. Delivery channel other than Bank counters are ___ a) ATM's b) Internet Banking c) Mobile Banking d) Tele Banking e) All of the above 35. In Marketing Mix 4 P's Imply: a) Product, Price, Place, Promotion b) Product, Price, Policy, Place c) Place, People, Product, Promotion d) All of the above e) None of these 36. Innovation in marketing is same as: a) Motivation b) Perspiration c) Aspiration d) Creativity e) Team work 37. Service marketing is the same as _ a) internet marketing b) tele-marketing c) internal marketing d) relationship marketing e) transaction marketing 38. 'Benchmark' means: a) Products lined up on a bench b) Salesman sitting on a bench c) Setting standards d) Marks on a bench e) None of these 39. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to ___ a) globalization b) increased competition c) increased production d) increased job opportunities e) All of the above 40. Cross-selling is effective for which one of the following products? a) Debit Cards b) Savings Accounts c) Internet Banking d) Pension loans e) Personal loans KEY 1) e 2) b 3) e 4) a 5) b 6) e 7) b 8) c 9) e 10) b 11) c 12) e 13) c 14) b 15) c 16) c 17) b 18) d 19) d 20) c 21) c 22) d 23) b 24) c 25) a 26) a 27) a 28) a 29) a 30) b 31) d 32) d 33) a 34) e 35) a 36) d 37) d 38) c 39) b 40) b -
నియంత్రణ యూనిట్ యొక్క కర్తవ్యం ఏమిటి?
1. We cannot delete the ____ icon, but we can made it invisible. a) Recycle b) My Computer c) Internet explorer d) All the above e) None of the above 2. What is the meaning of 'Hibernate' in Windows XP/ Windows 7? a) Restart the computers in safe mode b) Restart the computers in normal mode c) Shutdown the computer terminating all the running applications d) Shutdown the computer without closing the running applications e) Restart the computers all the running applications 3. The RF communication can be broadly classified in how many types? a) Three b) Four c) Two d) Six e) Ten 4. _____ is sometimes said to be object oriented, because the only way to manipulate kernel objects is by invoking methods on their handles. a) Windows NT b) Windows XP c) Windows VISTA d) Windows 95/98 e) Windows 7 5. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen? a) Tab stop box b) Left Indent c) Right Indent d) Center Indent e) All of them are available on ruler 6. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of __ a) session layer b) network layer c) transport layer d) data link layer e) None of the above 7. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory? a) Best case b) Worst case c) Average case d) Null case e) All of the above 8. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language is called a/ an a) Interpreter b) Simulator c) Compiler d) Commander e) Proposer 9. Which of the following formulas will Excel not be able to calculate? a) =SUM(Sales)-A3 b) =SUM(A1:A5)*.5 c) =SUM(A1:A5)/(10-10) d) =SUM(A1:A5)-10 e) = SUM(A1:A5)-A5 10. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which digital information can be stored? a) Customer relationship management systems cards b) E-government identity cards c) FEDI cards d) Smart cards e) Aadhar card 11. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol? a) Alt+Ctrl+C b) Alt + C c) Ctrl + C d) Ctrl + Shift + C e) Ctrl + Shift + D 12. During software development which factor is most crucial? a) People b) Process c) Product d) Project e) Purpose 13. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard? a) Two b) Three c) Seven d) Six e) eight 14. The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called ___ a) Bipolar b) NRZ c) Manchester d) Binary e) Bit 15. The idea of MFC document architecture was created by: a) Microsoft b) Oracle c) Xerox d) IBM e) Java 16. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? a) Pixel b) Reverse video c) Touch screen d) Cursor e) Image 17. What kind of architecture does mobile computing deploy? a) Two layered b) Three layered c) Four layered d) Five layered e) Six layered 18. A word processor would most likely be used to do ___ a) Keep an account of money spent b) Do a computer search in media center c) Maintain an inventory d) Type a biography e) All the above 19. SDLC stands for? a) Software Design Life Cycle b) Software Development Life Cycle c) System Design Life Cycle d) System Development Life Cycle e) None of these 20. When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored in/ on the ___ a) stack pointer b) accumulator c) program counter d) stack e) pointer 21. What component of .NET includes services used to support web services? a) Platform b) Framework c) Visual Studio d) System e) Mather board 22. Which of the following is not one of the four primary focuses of e-government? a) G2G b) G2B c) IG2B d) IG2G e) IG2I 23. ____is not a category of EPS. a) E banking b) Direct payments c) Retailing payments d) Cash on delivery e) All of these 24. One of the distinguished features of super-computer over other category of computer is ____ a) parallel processing b) highest accuracy level c) more speed d) more capacity e) less speed 25. Which class is used to control the data being used by application? a) Document class b) View class c) Frame class d) Application class e) Software class 26. What is the control unit's function in the CPU? a) Transfers data to primary storage b) Stores program instruction c) Performs logic operations d) Decodes program instruction e) Performs logic storage 27. Which of the following is the most common method for online payment? a) Card based system b) Cheque based system c) e cash system d) All the above e) None of the above 28. Which of the following is not a product matrix? a) Size b) Reliability c) Productivity d) Functionality e) Quality 29. Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate in individual device? a) Computer bus b) Telephone lines c) Voice and mode d) Lease lines e) Only voice 30. The most common addressing techniques employed by a CPU is ___ a) Immediate b) Direct c) Indirect d) Register e) All of the above 31. The key F12 opens a: a) Save As dialog box b) Open dialog box c) Save dialog box d) Close dialog box e) Edit dialog box 32. Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal? a) VDR b) RTS c) CTS d) DSR e) DLR 33. The indirect change of the values of a variable in one module by another module is called ___ a) internal change b) inter-module change c) side effect d) side-module update e) internal effect 34. Operating system is also known as: a) Database b) System software c) Hardware d) Printer e) Operating system 35. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer jargon for it? a) Leech b) Squid c) Slug d) Glitch e) Bug 36. What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8? a) It activates extended selection b) It activates the rectangular selection c) It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is d) All of the above e) None of the above 37. Which of the following is the latest version of Excel? a) Excel 2000 b) Excel 2002 c) Excel ME d) Excel 7 e) Excel XP 38. Which of the following statement is correct? a) Terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler b) Receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler c) Transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler d) Control section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler e) None of the above 39. Human beings are referred to as Homo sapiens, which device is called Silico Sapiens? a) Monitor b) Hardware c) Robot d) Computer e) Mouse 40. ____ share characteristics with both hardware and software. a) Operating system b) Software c) Data d) File e) None 41. A worksheet range is a ___ a) command used for data modeling b) range of values such as from 23 to 234 c) group of cells d) group of worksheets e) group of rows -
ఐబిపిఎస్ మోడల్ పేపర్
177. The G20 Summit will be held in November 2014 in? 1) Argentina 2) Australia 3) Turkey 4) South Korea 5) Saudi Arabia 178. The 2014 Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award was given to? 1) MS Swaminathan 2) Javed Akhtar 3) Muzaffar Ali 4) Gulzar 5) None of these 179. "The Substance and the Shadow" is the biography of? 1) Aamir Khan 2) Amitabh Bachchan 3) Dharmendra 4) Dilip Kumar 5) Shatrughan Sinha 180. Ranthambore National Park is situated in? 1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Odisha 3) Karnataka 4) Gujarat 5) Rajasthan 181. The 7th BRICS Summit will be held in July 2014 in which of the following countries? 1) Brazil 2) Russia 3) India 4) China 5) South Africa 182. Who among the following Indian sportspersons did not win a gold medal at the 17th Asian Games in Incheon, South Korea? 1) Seema Punia 2) Mary Kom 3) Vikas Gowda 4) Yogeswar Dutt 5) Saketh Myneni 183. Which Indian movie has been nominated as India's official entry to 2015 Oscars? 1) Jaateeshwar 2) Ship of Theseus 3) Liar's Dice 4) Queen 5) None of these 184. Commodities markets are regulated by? 1) IRDA 2) TRAI 3) SEBI 4) FMC 5) CII 185. With which sport is Jeetu Rai associated? 1) Badminton 2) Swimming 3) Archery 4) Squash 5) Shooting 186. The Arjuna Awards selection committee for 2014 was chaired by? 1) Sunil Gavaskar 2) Ravi Shastri 3) Kapil Dev 4) Sourav Ganguly 5) Anil Kumble 187. Who was named Man of the Tournament in the 2014 ICC World T20 held in Bangladesh? 1) Kumar Sangakkara 2) Rohit Sharma 3) Virat Kohli 4) Mahela Jayawardane 5) Lasith Malinga 188. Who was re-elected as the Prime Minister of Hungary for the second consecutive term recently? 1) Enrico Letta 2) Viktor Orban 3) Nick Clegg 4) Matteo Renzi 5) None of these 189. Who succeeded Sumit Bose as the Finance Secretary of India? 1) Arvind Mayaram 2) Shaktikantha Das 3) A.K. Mathur 4) R.K. Mathur 5) None of these 190. The Reserve Bank of India extended deadline for banks to implement Basel III norms by a year to March 31? 1) 2018 2) 2019 3) 2017 4) 2016 5) None of these 191. At present which of the following rates is 7%? 1) Bank rate 2) Repo rate 3) Reverse repo rate 4) Cash reserve ratio 5) None of these 192. What is the amount of accidental insurance cover under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana scheme? 1) Rs 50,000 2) Rs 1 lakh 3) Rs 30,000 4) Rs 1.5 lakh 5) Rs 75,000 193. Which committee recommended the establishment of payments banks? 1) Damodaran committee 2) Aditya Puri committee 3) R.S. Gujral committee 4) Nachiket Mor committee 5) None of these 194. As per the 2014-15 Union Budget what is the income tax exemption limit for senior citizens? 1) Rs 3 lakh 2) Rs 2.5 lakh 3) Rs 2 lakh 4) Rs 3.5 lakh 5) Rs 4 lakh 195. Two new agricultural universities will be set up in Andhra Pradesh and? 1) Rajasthan 2) Telangana 3) Odisha 4) Haryana 5) Uttar Pradesh 196. As per the latest Human Development Index what is India's rank? 1) 136 2) 137 3) 135 4) 134 5) 143 197. Which is the first bank in India to launch EMI facility on debit cards? 1) SBI 2) Axis Bank 3) Bank of India 4) Bank of Baroda 5) ICICI Bank 198. Who was appointed Interpol brand ambassador? 1) Aamir Khan 2) Amitabh Bachchan 3) Hrithik Roshan 4) Shah Rukh Khan 5) Akshay Kumar 199. Mridula Sinha has been appointed as the new Governor of? 1) Kerala 2) Goa 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Gujarat 5) Manipur 200. Who is the Union Mines, Steel, Labor and Employment Minister? 1) Ravi Shankar Prasad 2) Ananth Kumar 3) Narendra Singh Tomar 4) Anant Geethe 5) Ramvilas Paswan KEY 177) 2 178) 3 179) 4 180) 5 181) 2 182) 3 183) 3 184) 4 185) 5 186) 3 187) 3 188) 2 189) 1 190) 2 191) 3 192) 2 193) 4 194) 1 195) 1 196) 3 197) 5 198) 4 199) 2 200) 3 This Model paper is prepared by: K.M. Jaya Rao, K.V. Gnana Kumar, K. Lalitha Bai, B.Ravipal Reddy, N.Vijayender Reddy. The process of carrying out commands? 1. LSI, VLSI & ULSI chips were used in which generation? a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth e) Fifth 2. The list of coded instructions is called a) Computer Program b) Algorithm c) Flow Chart d) Utility Program e) None of these 3. A system call is a method by which a program makes a request to the a) Input Management b) Interrupt processing c) Output Management d) Operating system e) Multi task 4. Which of the following is application software? a) Tally b) AutoCAD c) MS-Office d) All the above e) None of these 5. __________ gives a computer its unique address across the network. a) System Address b) SYSID c) Process ID d) IP Address e) CPU Address 6. The process of carrying out commands: a) Fetching b) Storing c) Executing d) Decoding e) Debugging 7. The networking becomes___ through networking. a) very difficult b) dull c) easy d) has no role in marketing e) medium 8. A computer system that is old and perhaps not satisfactory is referred to as ____ a) Ancient system b) Historical system c) Age old system d) Legacy system e) Legal system 9. Which process checks to ensure that the components of the computer are operating and connected properly? a) Booting b) Processing c) Saving d) Editing e) Compiling 10. The term "push" and "pop" is related to the a) array b) lists c) stacks d) all the above e) none of these 11. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory? a) Best case b) Worst case c) Null case d) Average case e) Middle case 12. What is the most popular hardware for multimedia creations? a) PCs b) Minicomputers c) Mainframe Computers d) WANs e) Super Computers 13. The ____ settings are automatic and standard. a) Default b) CPU c) Peripheral d) User-friendly e) Defaulter 14. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system? a) Language translator b) Platform c) User interface d) Icon e) None of these 15. The ____ folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send. a) Drafts b) Outbox c) Address Book d) Sent Items e) Inbox 16. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as: a) an ASCII code b) a magnetic tape c) an OCR scanner d) a bar code e) none of these 17. A collaborative network that uses Internet Technology to link business with their suppliers is? a) Internet b) Intranet c) Extranet d) WAN e) LAN 18. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model? a) Transport b) Network c) Data Link d) Physical e) Mac layer 19. A passive threat to computer security is? a) Malicious Intent b) Sabotage c) Accidental Errors d) Espionage Agents e) None of these 20. Which of the following is not the classification of computers based on application? a) Electronic Computers b) Analog Computers c) Digital Computers d) Hybrid Computers e) Smart Computers Key: 1) c 2) a 3) d 4) d 5) d 6) c 7) c 8) e 9) a 10) c 11) c 12) a 13) a 14) c 15) b 16) d 17) c 18) c 19) c 20) b -
సత్వరమార్గం కీ ఏమిటి?
1. India's largest wide area network is: a) INDONET b) NICNET c) INET d) SWIFT e) Beam 2. A computer system consists of several devices like CPU, monitor, mouse etc. together they are called: a) computer peripherals b) computer components c) computer bits d) computer equipments e) none of the above 3. Number of devices supported by LAN can be maximum of: a) 7 b) 12 c) 100 d) 1000 e) 25 4. An information system that immediately responds to the physical systems is called: a) Live system b) On-line System c) Off-line system d) Real time system e) none 5. Route adopted by large companies for payment of dividends to shareholders is called a) ECS Debit b) RTGS c) ECS Credit d) either (b) or (c) e) either (a) or (c) 6. Which combination of keys needs to be pressed to make a percent sign? a) Shift+2 b) Shift+3 c) Shift+4 d) Shift+5 e) Shift+9 7. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers? a) Average b) Count c) Minimum d) Maximum e) None of these 8. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the common name for such boards? a) Daughter board b) Motherboard c) Father board d) Breadboard e) CPU 9. MB launched its first personal computer called IBM-PC in 1981. It had chips from Intel, disk drives from Tan don, operating system from Microsoft, the printer from Epson and the application software from everywhere. Can you name the country which contributed the video display? a) India b) China c) Germany d) Taiwan e) Japan 10. What is meant by a dedicated computer? a) Which is used by one person only b) Which is assigned one and only one task c) Which uses one kind of software d) Which is meant for application software e) All the above 11. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands? a) 1978 b) 1984 c) 1990 d) 1989 e) 1991 12. The information stored in storage devices can be accessed in ______ a) RAM access & ROM access b) Memory access & Disk access c) Random access & shift access d) Sequential access & Direct access e) All the above 13. Which of the following is the most commonly used encoding standard of Unicode? a) UTF-6 b) UTF-7 c) UTF-5 d) UTF-9 e) UTF-8 14. UML is stands for a) Universal Modelling Language b) Unified Modelling Language c) United Modelling Language d) Unit Modelling Language e) Uni Modelling Language 15. Which of the following translator program converts assembly language program to object program? a) assembler b) compiler c) microprocessor d) linker e) sender 16. Which protocol is used to transfer web pages? a) TCP/IP b) SMTP c) POP3 d) HTTP e) HPTP 17. A self-sufficient computer that acts as both a server and a client is known as a) Host b) Client c) Server d) Terminal e) Peer 18. The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to a) simplex lines b) half-duplex lines c) full duplex lines d) bi flex-lines e) tri flex lines 19. A system program that sets up an executable program in main memory ready for execution is a) assembler b) linker c) compiler d) Coding e) loader 20. A table can be logically connected to another table by defining a a) Super key b) Candidate key c) Primary key d) Unique key e) Common attribute. 21. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause? a) Over heat b) Power surges c) EMI d)Incomplete path for ESD e) None of the above 22. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up? a) ROM BIOS b) CPU c) boot.ini d) CONFIG.SYS e) .bat 23. A collaborative network that uses Internet Technology to link business with their suppliers is --- a) Internet b) Intranet c) Extranet d) WAN e) LAN 24. Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model consists of - a) 5-layers b) 6-layers c) 7-layers d) 8-layers e) 9-layers 25. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is - a) Bridge b) Gateway c) Router d) Modem e) CPU 26. A collection of raw facts is called - a) Output b) Information c) Bits d) Data e) Files 27. A __ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu. a) dialog box b) submenu c) menu selection d) all the above e) None 28. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called? a) RAM b) Floppy c) CPU d) ROM e) Hard disk 29. Storage that retains its data after the power is turned off is referred to as- a) volatile storage b) non-volatile storage c) sequential storage d) direct storage e) indirect storage 30. Which of the following is an example of connectivity? a) internet b) floppy disk c) power card d) data e) file 31. ___ is the process of finding errors in software code. a) Compiling b) Testing c) Running d) Debugging e) Marking 32. Which of the following is not as language for computer programming a) Windows b) PASCAL c) BASIC d) COBOL e) .net 33. ____is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors. a) Tracking b) Formatting c) Crashing d) Allotting e) Storing 34. What is the shortcut key to "Undo" the last action in a document? a) Ctrl + X b) Ctrl + y c) Ctrl + Z d) Ctrl + U e) Ctrl + V 35. The language that the computer can understand and execute is called- a) machine language b) application software c) system program d) all of these e) none of these 36. Which of the following is not hardware- a) magnetic tape b) printer c) VDU terminal d) assembler e) pointer 37. What are the basic types of memory that your computer uses- a) RAM b) RW/RAM c) ROM d) both A and C e) both A,B and C 38. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is- a) HTTP b) Browser c) WWW d) B2B e) B2A 39. The ___ enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window. a) tab box b) pop-up helper c) tab row d) address bar e) none 40. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards? a) BUS b) CPU c) USB d) MIDI e) RAM 41. You can ____ a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results. a) refine b) expand c) load d) query e) unload 42. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into- a) web sites b) information c) programs d) objects e) web engines 43. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the: a) Hard disk b) CPU c) Mainframe d) Platform e) System unit 44. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the: a) Digital divide b) Internet divides c) Web divides d) Broadband divide e) None 45. DSL is an example of a(n) _____ connection. a) Network b) Wireless c) Slow d) Cable e) Broadband 46. The Analytical Engine developed during First Generation of computers used ___ as a memory unit? a) RAM b) Floppies c) Cards d) Counter Wheels e) Rooms 47. Which type of DOS program can you run to see which serial ports are detected? a) combing b) MSD c) command.com d) SDET e) serial.chk KEY 1) b 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) c 6) d 7) d 8) b 9) d 10) b 11) e 12) d 13) e 14) b 15) b 16) d 17) e 18) c 19) e 20) c 21) a 22) a 23) c 24) c 25) b 26) d 27) a 28) d 29) b 30) a 31) b 32) a 33) b 34) c 35) a 36) d 37) d 38) a 39) c 40) b 41) a 42) b 43) e 44) a 45) e 46) d 47) b -
వినియోగదారులు అనుభూతి...
1. A MARKETING philosophy summarized by the phrase 'a stronger focus on social and ethical concerns in MARKETING' is characteristic of the _____ period. a) production b) sales c) marketing d) societal marketing e) sales marketing 2. The company that overlooks new and better ways to do things will eventually lose customers to another company that has found a better way of serving customer needs is a major tenet of: a) Innovative marketing b) Consumer-oriented marketing c) Value marketing d) Value -of-mission marketing e) None of these 3. According to the ''Marketing and Sales Standards Setting Body'' (MSSSB), which of the following is not a Marketing function? a) Promote marketing intelligence b) Develop sales tactics c) Develop the customer proposition d) Work with other business functions and third parties e) None of these 4. Newsletters, catalogues and invitations to organisation-sponsored events are most closely associated with the Marketing mix activity of: a) Pricing b) Distribution c) Product development d) Promotion e) Selling 5. When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality and value-based price are met or exceeded, _____ is created. a) customer satisfaction b) planning excellence c) a quality rift d) a value line e) none of these 6. Which of the following is not part of the external marketing environment? a) Political b) Legal c) Product d) Socio-cultural e) None of these 7. The phenomenon that customers are happy to work with companies and an organisation to solve problems is referred as: a) Crowd-sourcing b) Communication-sourcing c) Customer co-creation d) Mass-sourcing e) None of these 8. New technology results in new goods and services and it can also: a) Lower the quality of existing products b) Lower the available level of customer service c) Reduce prices through new production and distribution methods d) Bring back products that were considered obsolete e) None of these 9. Marketing managers cannot control ____ but they can at times influence it. a) where advertising is placed b) how products or services are delivered c) the external environment d) how products are priced e) None of these 10. The differentiation of a firm's products or services to promote environmental responsibility is referred to as: a) Social branding b) Eco-branding c) Me-too branding d) Brand personality e) None of these 11. The level of commitment that consumers feel towards a given brand is called? a) Brand equity b) Brand name c) Brand loyalty d) Brand utility e) None of these 12. With respect to consumer behavior, one's friends and relatives could be considered as a/ an: a) Impersonal influence b) Reference group influence c) Perceptual influence d) Institutional influences e) None of these 13. Which of the following is not part of the consumer proposition acquisition process? a) Motive development b) Information gathering c) Proposition evaluation d) Perception e) None of these 14. The purchasing department reorders on a routine basis, very often working from an approved list of suppliers. This is referred to as: a) Straight rebuy b) New task c) Modified rebuy d) Routine buying e) All the above 15. The purchasing strategy is based on collaboration in research and development. This is called: a) Bargainer b) Clock wiser c) Adapter d) Updater e) All the above 16. A Marketing research firm contracts with clients to conduct a complete marketing research project from data collection, analysis and reporting. It is a____firm. a) consultant b) field agency c) full-service agency d) tabulation agency e) none of these 17. Second-hand data, collected for someone else's purposes, is known as: a) Primary research b) Descriptive research c) Causal research d) Secondary research e) None of these 18. Which technique is used to collect data that has been previously collected for a purpose other than the current research situation? a) Secondary research b) Primary research c) Desk research d) Secondary research and desk research e) None of these 19. ____ systems are used to mine customer data, particularly when undertaking research into characterizing customer groups and their product/ service usage. a) Customer relationship management (CRM) b) Marketing information system (MkIS) c) Computer-assisted web interviewing (CAWI) d) Share of Wallet (SOW) e) All the above 20. What is the term used to describe the degree to which the data elicited in a study is replicated in a repeat study? a) Replication b) Pre-code c) Reliability d) Convenience e) None of these 21. The ____ process commences at corporate level. Here the organisation sets out its overall mission, purpose and values. a) researching b) strategic planning c) controlling d) managing e) all the above 22. A statement about what an organisation wants to become, which sets out an organisation's future, is referred to as: a) Mission b) Values c) Organisational goals d) Vision e) All the above 23. A statement that sets out what the organisation wishes to achieve in the long term is referred to as: a) Mission b) Vision c) Values d) Strategic context e) None of these 24. Organisational values are important because they: a) Help shape mission statements b) Help increase sales c) Help guide behavior and the recruitment and selection decisions d) Help define market research e) None of these 25. Which of the following are the three broad groups of consumer segmentation criteria? a) Behavioral, psychological and profile criteria b) Behavioral-, gender- and industry- type variables c) Organisational size, demographic and behavioral variables d) Psychographic, sociological and price variables e) All the above 26. A commonly used basis for segmenting consumer MARKETS is: a) Organisational size b) Demographics c) Product type d) Price e) Product 27. ACORN, a segmentation analysis technique, stands for: a) A Corresponding Official Residential Notation b) A Classification of Reported Nationals c) A Classification of Residential Neighborhoods d) A Countrywide Official Resources Navigation e) None of these 28. The family life cycle: a) Is a way to apply psychographic segmentation b) Refers to the process of family formation and dissolution c) Provides insights into the relationships among age, occupation, income and housing d) Is composed of the 11 stages of personal growth from infancy to retirement e) None of these 29. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper ____ a) Product distribution b) Networking of branches c) High pricing d) Placement of counter staff e) Relationship management 30. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to? a) Globalization b) Increased production c) Increased job opportunities d) Increased staff e) Increased production 31. The best promotional tool in any marketing is ___ a) Pamphlets b) News letters c) Word of mouth publicity d) Regional advertisement e) Viral marketing 32. Marketing of services is adopted in ___ a) Grocery stores b) Garment trade c) Medicine shops d) Fruit stalls e) Hotels 33. Which of the following is not a 'Post testing' technique of advertisement? a) Sales test b) Focus group c) Enquiry test d) Attitude test e) None of these 34. Which of the following information forms available to the marketing manager, can usually be accessed more quickly and cheaply than other information sources? a) Marketing intelligence b) Marketing research c) Customer profiles d) Internal databases e) None of these 35. Market Segmentation means dividing? a) The marketing teams into small groups b) The employees as per their grads c) The products, as per their usage d) The products, as per their life cycle e) The market, as per the tastes and needs of different groups 36. Modern method of marketing requires ___ a) Publicity on the net b) Advertisement on the net c) Soliciting business through e - mails d) Telemarketing e) All the above KEY: 1) d; 2) a; 3) b; 4) d; 5) a; 6) c; 7) a; 8) c; 9) c; 10) b; 11) c; 12) b; 13) d; 14) a; 15) d; 16) c; 17) d; 18) a; 19) a; 20) c; 21) b; 22) d ; 23) a; 24) c; 25) a; 26) b; 27) c; 28) b; 29) e; 30) b; 31) c; 32) e; 33) c; 34) d; 35) e; 36) e. -
ఎటిఎమ్ మెషీన్ లో ఉపయోగించిన ఆపరేటింగ్ సిస్టమ్?
1. The memory address of the first element of an array is called ___ a) floor address b) foundation address c) first address d) base address e) second address 2. The term "push" and "pop" is related to the ___ a) Array b) Lists c) Stacks d) All the above e) None of these 3. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle: a) Linked lists b) Deque c) Stacks d) Queues e) Bugs 4. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory? a) Best case b) Worst case c) Null case d) Average case e) Middle case 5. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ___ a) Traversal b) Sorting c) Merging d) Inserting e) Layout 6. Human beings are referred to as Homo Sapiens, which device is called Sillico Sapien? a) Hardware b) Robot c) Computer d) Monitor e) RAM 7. A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains within it a ___ a) Computer b) Microcomputer c) Programmable d) Sensor e) Cursor 8. The Analytical Engine developed during First Generation of computers used ___ as a memory unit. a) Floppies b) RAM c) Counter Wheels d) Cards e) Wires 9. Which of the following devices is specially designed to forward packets to specific ports based on the packet's address? a) Switching hub b) Specialty hub c) Filtering hub d) Port hub e) Pin hub 10. What is the Operating System used in ATM machine? a) Windows XP b) Windows 7 c) Linux d) Windows 8.1 e) Windows XP or Linux based 11. BOSS is developed in which country? a) Japan b) USA c) UK d) India e) China 12. A system call is a method by which a program makes a request to the ____ a) Input Management b) Interrupt processing c) Output Management d) Operating system e) Operating Management 13. Which of the following is the older high-level (non-assembler) programming language? a) C b) LISP c) FORTRAN d) BASIC e) C++ 14. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment? a) Keyboard b) Mouse c) Joystick d) Trackball e) Printer 15. The section of the CPU that is responsible for performing mathematical operations: a) Memory b) Register Unit c) Control Unit d) ALU e) None of the above 16. Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communication needs? a) Front end processor b) Multiplexer c) Controller d) Concentrator e) All of the above 17. Microsoft .NET is ___ a) Open Source b) Closed Source c) Browser d) Middle Source e) All the above 18. Technical documentation is prepared by? a) Users b) Coders c) Mangers d) Marketing & sales people e) Students 19. Comments can be added using __ a) \comments b) /* */ c) // d) % e) $ 20. What are the three main types of computer programming languages? a) Machine language, assembly language, high level language b) Imperative language, functional language, declarative language c) COBOL, FORTRAN-77, C++ d) a and c e) None of these 21. Which of the following network access standard is used for connecting stations to a circuit-switched network? a) X.3 b) X.21 c) X.25 d) X.75 e) X.8 22. Which of the following is usually a special one-time operation that must be completed over a limited time period? a) Batch b) Patch c) Project d) Word e) File 23. The latest PC keyboards use a circuit that senses the movement by the change in its capacitance. What are these keyboards called? a) Capacitance keyboards b) Mechanical keyboards c) Qwerty keyboards d) Dvorak keyboards e) Normal keyboard 24. An IC contains 50 gates each of which consists of 6 components. Its belong to: a) VLSI b) LSI c) MSI d) SSI e) SSC 25. Controls of data communication deal with ___ a) the communication channel b) the computer c) terminals d) All of the above e) None of the above 26. Inventory is also referred to as: a) Stock b) Warehouse capacity c) Materials d) Materials in hand e) Storage 27. A server that can perform no other task besides network services is called ___ a) Uno server b) Dedicated server c) Committed server d) Service server e) Client server 28. What is the shortcut key of printing a document for computer having windows? a) Shift + P b) Alt + P c) Del + P d) Ctrl + Shift + P e) Ctrl + P 29. The processing of an application takes place between a client and a ___ processor. a) Front end b) Back end c) Middle end d) Only a and b e) a, b and c 30. ___ transforms one interface into another interface. a) Program b) Software c) Data d) File e) Data Base 31. What is the full form of CRT? a) Current Ray Tube b) Current Ray Technology c) Cathode Ray Tube d) Cathode Ray Technology e) Cat Ray Tube 32. The Analytical Engine developed during First Generation of computers used ___ as a memory unit. a) RAM b) Floppies c) Cards d) Counter Wheels e) ROM 33. Which of the following companies is a leader in manufacture of Hard Disk Drives? a) Samsung b) IBM c) Fujitsu d) Seagate e) Acer 34. ____ store data or information temporarily and pass it on as directed by the control unit? a) Address b) Register c) Number d) Memory e) None of these 35. In ___ mode, the communication channel is used in both directions at the same time? a) Full-duplex b) Simplex c) Half-duplex d) Duplex e) None of these 36. "New Comment" option can be found under ___ tab? a) Insert b) Data c) Review d) View e) File 37. Which key moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line of text? a) Shift b) Enter/ return c) Tab d) Backspace/ delete e) None of these 38. Identify the IP address from the following: a) 300.215.317.3 b) 302.215@417.5 c) 202.50.20.148 d) 202-50-20-148 e) 101.50. 2 0.148 39. Which one of the following is not a/an image/ graphic file format? a) PNG b) GIF c) BMP d) GUI e) None of these 40. In a client/ server model, a client program ___ a) asks for information b) provides information and files c) serves software files to other computers d) distributes data files to other computers e) All the above 41. Dot-matrix, DeskJet, Inkjet and Laser are all types of which computer peripherals? a) Keyboard b) Software c) Monitor d) Hardware e) Printer 42. What is the meaning of 'Hibern- ate' in Windows XP / Windows 7? a) Restart the computers in safe mode b) Restart the computers in normal mode c) Shutdown the computer terminating all the running applications d) Shutdown the computer without closing the running applications. e) None of these KEY 1) d; 2) c; 3) b; 4) c; 5) a; 6) c; 7) d; 8) c; 9) a; 10) e; 11) c; 12) d; 13) c; 14) b; 15) d; 16) e; 17) b; 18) b; 19) d; 20) a; 21) b; 22) c; 23) a; 24) c; 25) d; 26) a; 27) b; 28) e; 29) d; 30) b; 31) c; 32) d; 33) d; 34) b; 35) a; 36) c; 37) b; 38) c; 39) d; 40) a; 41) e; 42) d. -
విమాన రాజధాని అంటే ఏమిటి?
1. Which of the following commissions recommended for establishment of Reserve Bank of India? a) Deshmukh Committee b) Hilton young commission c) Presidency Banking Commission d) Narasimhan Committee e) Osbone Smith Committee 2. RBI has capped the _______ to Rs. 35000 Crore to central government for the first half of the new financial year 2015. a) Bridge Loan b) Long term loan to repay the World Bank loan c) Ways and means advance d) Advance to promote Government Schemes e) Advance for improving infrastructure for the newly formed states in India 3. RBI has been authorised by Central Government to issue debt instruments not exceeding Rs.50000 Crore during the fiscal 2014-15 under MSS. What do you mean by MSS? a) Marginal Stability Scheme b) Market standardisation Scheme c) Market Stabilisation Scheme d) Marginal Stabilisation scheme e) None of the above 4. Which bank has started issuing Kisan Card to withdraw one lakh per day from ATMs? a) Axis Bank b) ICICI Bank c) HDFC Bank d) State Bank of India e) Punjab National Bank 5. Who is recently named as the India's governor on the board of governors of Asian Development Bank? a) Sushma Swaraj b) Arun Jaitley c) Murali Manohar Joshi d) H.R.Khan e) Venkaiah Naidu 6. The rate of interest on Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) loan introduced in the year 1972 is __ a) 4% b) 5% c) 6% d) 3% e) Depends on the loan 7. Which of the following banks were merged with State Bank of India? a) State Bank of Indore b) State Bank of Sourasthra c) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur d) State Bank of Patiala e) a & b 8. When a person wants to save money for a longer period of time with a view to earn a higher rate of interest, he/ she should open which of the following types of accounts? a) Savings account b) Current account c) Terms Deposit account d) Recurring account e) None of these 9. For obtaining which among the following, does a customer not require a bank account? a) A Loan b) A Cheque c) A Banker's Draft d) A debit Card e) All of the above 10. When RBI sells Government securities, its result: a) The liquidity in the banking system increases b) The liquidity in the banking system remains unchanged c) The liquidity in the banking system gets diminished d) The Deflation will be controlled e) The borrowers get credit at cheaper rate 11. The banks are in process to bring in biometric ATMs. These are specially aimed to address the needs of which of the following categories? a) Urban customers b) Rural customers c) Students d) Women e) None of these 12. What do you mean by flight of capital? a) Large number of investors of a country transferring their investments elsewhere due to disturbed economic conditions b) Investment in risky projects c) Large amount of inflow of capital from NRIs d) b & c e) None of the above 13. Fourteen banks were nationalised on 19.07.1969 as per: a) Companies Act 1956 b) Banking Regulation Act 1949 c) Banking Companies (Acquisition and transfer of undertakings) ordinance Act, 1969 d) RBI Act 1934 e) Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 14. Under PMJDY, every account holder will get a ____ a) Rupay debit card b) Rs. 1.00 lack accident insurance c) Rs. 30,000 for natural death d) Rs. 25000 credit card limit e) a, b & c 15. The Phase II of PMJDY (15th August, 2015 to 14th August, 2018) covers ____ a) Creation of Credit Guarantee Fund for coverage of defaults in overdraft A/Cs b) Micro Insurance c) Unorganized sector Pension schemes like Swavlamban d) Only a & b e) a, b & c 16. How many times nomination in deposit accounts can be changed? a) Only one b) Maximum two times c) Once in a year d) At the discretion of the concerned bank e) No such restriction 17. BIS which has representative offices in Hong Kong and Mexico was established on 17th May 1930, wherein BIS stands for: a) Bank for Industrial Settlements b) Bank for International Settlements c) Bank with Industrial standards d) Bureau of Indian Standards e) None of the above 18. Which Indian is one of the Board of Directors in BIS (Bank for International Settlements)? a) Arun Jaitley b) Chidambaram c) Raghuram Rajan d) Arundhathi subramanyam e) SS Mundra 19. Basel III Norms are to be fully implemented by ____ a) 31 march 2020 b) 31 March 2019 c) 31 March 2025 d) 30 September 2014 e) None of these 20. What are the powers of RBI under section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 for issuing directions to Bank? a) To issue directions in the public interest or in the interest of banking policy b) To prevent affairs of banking company if it is detrimental to the interests of depositors c) To secure the proper management of any banking company d) All the above e) Only a & b 21. As per Basel III, Banks would be required to maintain capital Adequacy Ratio of ____ including Ca-pital Conservation Buffer (CCB). a) 11.5 b) 10.5 c) 9.5 d) 8.5 e) 12.5 22. SEBI Head Office is located in: a) Hyderabad b) Pune c) Mumbai d) New Delhi e) Chennai 23. Which of the following are the targets for different categories of priority sector? a) Overall target 40% of net Bank credit b) Agriculture loans (direct and indirect) 18% c) Priority sector target for foreign Banks is 32% d) All the above e) None of the above 24. In terms of section 19 of the RBI Act 1934, the RBI has been prohibited from: a) Acting as lender of last resort to banks b) Drawing or accepting bills payable otherwise than on demand c) Allowing interest on deposits or current accounts d) Deciding Repo and Reverse Repo Rates e) Deciding Bank Rate 25. Budget allocation for the rural housing scheme in the Union Budget 2014 - 15 is ____ a) Rs. 6,000 cr b) Rs. 8,000 cr c) Rs. 10,000 cr d) Rs. 12,000 cr e) None of the above 26. RBI allocating the funds from the subvention of rate of interest to Bank loans given to farmers by pledging their gold comes under _____ a) Traditional function b) Supervisory function c) Promotional function d) Derilictory function e) None of these 27. Review of banks performance is one of the functions of ____ a) Promotional function b) Administrative function c) Supervisory functions d) Negative functions e) None 28. AS per RBI order, against the certificate of Deposit, the ____ a) Loan cannot be granted b) Loan can be granted c) Loan can be granted up to 50% of value d) Loan can be granted up to 75% of value e) None of these 29. An order cheque is endorsed as "without recourse to me" by the endorser. This endorsement is known as a) Blank endorsement b) Restrictive endorsement c) Endorsement in full d) Sans recourse endorsement e) None of these 30. Bank A allows one of its clients to withdraw against clearing of a cheque, The banker is called as: a) Collecting and paying banker b) Holder in due course c) Holder for value d) Reimbursement banker e) Any of the above 31. Which one of the Non Resident Deposit schemes is not permitted? a) FCNR A/cs b) NRNR A/cs c) NRE A/cs d) NRO A/cs e) NREO A/cs 32. Capital adequacy is worked out based on: a) Total demand and time liabilities b) Net demand and time assets c) Risk weighted assets d) Risk weighted liabilities e) Only a & b 33. The whole time Directors of a Bank are appointed by: a) Reserve Bank of India b) Central government in consultation with RBI c) Individual Bank d) All the above e) None of the above 34. Maximum amount that can be referred to Banking Ombudsman is ___ a) Rs. 5 lakh b) Rs. 10.00 lakh c) Rs. 4.00 lakh d) Rs. 3.00 lakh e) Rs. 2.00 lakh 35. Which of the following is the first universal bank of India? a) HDFC b) Axis Bank c) ICICI d) Federal Bank e) None of these 36. Which of the following guidelines are applicable in connection with short fall in lending to priority sector? a) Equivalent amount of shortfall under agriculture sector should be invested with RIDF b) Any shortfall in achieving sub-target under SSI sector, an equivalent amount should be invested with SIDBI c) The interest rates on banks' contribution to RIDF shall be fixed by Reserve Bank of India from Time to time. d) The foreign banks having shortfall in lending to stipulated priority sector target/ sub-targets will Be required to contribute to Small Enterprises Development Fund (SEDF) e) All of the above -
అండ్ గేట్ నెగెటివ్ కూడా ఉంది ..?
1. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym: a) CD b) DVD c) ROM d) RW e) ROS 2. A ____ is the term used when a search engine returns a web page that matches the search criteria. a) Blog b) Hit c) Link d) View e) Success 3. Plotters print ____ a) with ball point pens b) with ink pens c) electrostatic ally d) All of these e) None of these 4. Which of the following is an abbreviation for a hardware programming language? a) AHPL b) AFL c) ACM d) APL e) LPM 5. A language based on graphic for use in education is: a) PROLOG b) LOGO c) COBOL d) BASIC e) None of these 6. Missing slot covers on a com-puter can cause? a) Over heat b) Power surges c) EMI d) Incomplete path for ESD e) None of the above 7. When installing PCI NICS you can check the IRQ availability by looking at: a) Dip switches b) CONFIG.SYS c) Jumper settings d) Motherboard BIOS e) CPU 8. What is the best ground for a conductive work bench? a) AC outlet b) Ground to bend c) Another device d) Chassis ground e) None of the above 9. Which of the following codes is written into a serially accessed memory? a) EOD code b) Gray code c) Bar code d) Excess - 3 code e) Unicode 10. What is the full form of "XP" in Windows XP? a) XTRA Power b) XTREME Programming c) XTRA Process d) XTREME power e) None of these 11. The binary language consist(s) of _____ digit(s). a) 8 b) 2 c) 1,000 d) 1 e) 10 12. What beep codes could indicate a system board or power supply failure? a) Steady short beep b) No beep c) One long continuous beep tone d) Steady long beeps e) All of the above 13. Which logic family dissipates the minimum power? a) DTL b) TTL c) ECL d) CMOS e) DDL 14. A positive AND gate is also a negative ___ a) NAND gate b) NOR gate c) AND gate d) OR gate e) XOR gate 15. In Power Point, the Header & Footer button can be found on the insert tab in what group? a) Illustration sheets b) Object group c) Text group d) Tables group e) Excel sheet 16. The method of internet access that requires a phone line, but offers faster access speeds than dial - up the ___ connection. a) Cable access b) Satellite access c) Fiber - optic services d) Digital subscriber line (DSL) e) Modem 17. In windows ME, what does ME stand for? a) Millennium b) Micro - Expert c) Macro - Expert d) Multi - Expert e) My - Expert 18. Which among the following is/ are interpreted language? a) C b) C++ c) Java d) Visual Basic e) Both c and d 19. Who is the founder of the Oracle Corporation? a) Bill Gates b) Dennis Retches c) Bill Joy d) Linux Thorvaldsen e) Lars Ellison 20. Hardware includes: a) All devices used to input data into a computer b) Sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes c) The computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data d) All devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory and storage e) None of these 21. What tool is used to test serial and parallel ports? a) High volt probe b) Cable scanner c) Loop backs (wrap plugs) d) Sniffer e) None of the above 22. From what location are the first computer instructions available on boot up? a) ROM BIOS b) CPU c) boot.ini d) CONFIG.SYS e) .bat 23. Which common bus specification provides the fastest data transfer rate? a) VL bus b) ISA c) PCI d) HTTP e) FTP 24. Which of the following protocol is used for downloading files to PC over internet? a) FTP b) DNS c) HTTP d) SMTP e) ALU 25. All of the following are components of an information system except: a) Software b) Culture c) Hardware d) Producers e) People 26. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? a) Simple parity check b) Checksum c) Two - dimensional parity check d) CRC e) CPU 27. ____ is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors a) Tracking b) Formatting c) Crashing d) Allotting e) Hacking 28. Which ports connect special types of music instrument to sound cards? a) BUS b) CPU c) USB d) MIDI e) MINI 29. Raster images are also known as? a) Bitmap images b) Vector images c) Clip art images d) Multimedia images e) JPJ images 30. CorelDraw is an example of a ___ a) Groupware application b) Bit publishing package c) Paint program d) Graphic Suit e) MS office 31. Users can interact in a fully immersed 3D environment using ___ a) Unstructured problems b) Virtual reality c) VRML d) Robotics e) Sympatric 32. Type one PC cards ___ a) are used only in desktops b) are no longer being produced c) are the thinnest of the PC cards d) don't exist e) have their own power source 33. What device protects against line deficiencies? a) Surge protector b) UPS c) Logic probe d) Capacitor e) Syntax 34. The term that refers to the use of a computer or some other information device, connected through a network, to access information and services is ____. a) Telecommuting b) Chatting c) Online d) Email e) G mail 35. Word can work with all of the following types of documents except ____ a) soundtracks b) world wide web pages c) reports d) proposals e) cover letters 36. ISP stands for ____. a) Internet Select Provider b) Internet Service Provider c) Internet Serial Provider d) Internet Service Pusher e) Internet Service 37. Administrative supervision of database activities is the responsibility of the ___ a) Data base administrator b) DP Manager c) DB Manager d) VP-DP administrator e) PP -DP administrator 38. End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in ____ a) Network layer b) Session layer c) Data link layer d) Transport layer e) MAC layer Key 1) d; 2) b; 3) d; 4) a; 5) b; 6) a; 7) d; 8) a; 9) a; 10) e; 11) b; 12) e; 13) d; 14) d; 15) c; 16) d; 17) a; 18) e; 19) e; 20) a; 21) c; 22) a; 23) c; 24) a; 25) b; 26) b; 27) b; 28) d; 29) a; 30) d; 31) b; 32) c; 33) b; 34) c; 35) a; 36) b; 37) a; 38) d. -
భీమా సేవ ..
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of banking sector, as per the decision taken in Parliament recently? a) The RBI will create framework for licences of small banks b) Every panchayat to have at least one small bank by 2019 c) Banks to be permitted to raise long - term funds to lend to infrastructure with minimum regulations d) Public sector banks need 2.40 lakh cr enquiries to conform to Basel -III norms by 2018 e) Banks capital to be raised through retail sale of shares while the Govt. to continue to hold majority in PSU banks 2. Which of the following Public Sector under takings are conferred the Navratna status by Department of Public Enterprises? a) Engineers India Limited (EIL) b) National Building Construction corporation Limited (NBCC) c) Antrix corporation Limited d) All of the above e) Only a and b 3. Which of the following banks has become the biggest employer in the private banking space with more than 72,000 employees in 2013-14? a) ICICI Bank b) HDFC c) Kotak Mahindra Bank d) Axis Bank e) None of these 4. CRR for non- scheduled urban co-operative banks (UCBs) increased to what percent of their total demanded and time liabilities recently? a) 3 percent b) 4 percent c) 4.5 percent d) 4.75 percent e) None of these 5. Punjab National Bank has launched ____ scheme for popularization of education among girls of Rural/ Semi urban areas. a) PNB -EDUCHILD b) PNB - SHIKSHA c) BALIKA - SHIKSHA d) 'PNB Ladli' e) None of these 6. The RBI started issuing its credit policy bi-monthly on the recommendation of which of the following committees? a) Shome committee b) Urjit patel committee c) HR Khan committee d) KC Chakra arty e) None of these 7. The operation of the following entities do not come under the purview of the RBI as of now, despite accepting deposits and giving loans? a) Regional Rural banks b) Cooperative credit societies c) Payments banks d) Non - Banking Financial companies e) Development banks 8. With respect to loans, a time period during the loan term when the borrower is not required to make any repayment, is termed as a) Provisioning b) Moratorium c) Sanction d) Limitation e) Probation 9. What is the initial minimum deposit required for opening a Basic Saving bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) with a bank? a) 200 b) 500 c) 700 d)1000 e) No initial deposit required 10. Which country agreed to provide a one- billion - Euro credit line to India over the next three years? a) UK b) Germany c) Switzerland d) France e) None of these 11. ARM loan means: a) Adjustable Rate Mortgage loan b) Adjustable Reverse Mortgage loan c) Adjustable Retail Mortgage loan d) None of the above e) Any of the above 12. Which of following agencies/ organization in India maintains the Micro finance development fund? a) SIDBI b) SBI c) NABARD d) PNB e) ICICI 13. RBI in regard to RTGS has decided that ___ a) RTGS would be accessible to all retail customers b) There would be no floor ceiling for routing transactions through RTGS c) Settlement of transactions of the clearing corporation of India and the stock market would be conducted through RTGS d) All of these e) None of these 14. As per KYC Policy, the list of terrorist organizations is supplied to the bank by the a) Government of India b) CIBIL c) IBA d) RBI e) All of these 15. Merchant banking in India is governed by ___ a) SEBI b) RBI c) IRDA d) Ministry of finance e) None of the above 16. If you wish to purchase US dollars to travel abroad, you will approach ___ a) Ministry of finance b) US embassy c) Any bank branch authorized for such activity d) RBI e) External affairs ministry. 17. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly known as ___ a) Investment banking b) Portfolio management c) Merchant banking d) Banc assurance e) None of these 18. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of ___ a) Commercial bills b) Foreign exchange c) Gold d) Government bonds e) None of these 19. The functions of the lead bank are performed by ___ a) SBI b) RBI c) Any bank d) A bank designed for this purpose e) None of these 20. The head office of the Punjab National Bank (PNB) is located in which of the following cities? a) Mumbai b) Amritsar c) New Delhi d) Chandigarh e) None o f these 21. Which of the following terms is NOT used in banking/ finance? a) Public Debt b) Plasma c) Joint venture d) Net demand and time liability e) Treasury bill 22. The Reserve Bank of India does NOT decide the ___ a) Rate of Repo and Reserve Repo b) Marginal standing Facility Rates c) Bank Rate d) Rate of Dearness Allowance for Government Employees e) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 23. Which of the following Mills have got Rs.14000 Cr interest free loans so far, as against Rs. 6000 Cr approved by central Government? a) Cash Starved Sugar Mills b) Sick Units of SME c) DBR Cotton Mills d) Suraj Cotton Mills e) Cash Starved Oil Mills 24. What is the amount of Accident Insurance Cover provided under Jan Dhan Yojana recently launched by the Prime Minister? a) Rs 1,00,000/- b) Rs 50,000/- c) Rs 30,000/- d) Rs 20,000/- e) None of the above 25. The Cooperative banks consist of a three - tier structure. Which of the following is not included in that structure? a) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) in the villages, b) Central Co-operative Banks at the district level (DCCBs) c) State Cooperative Banks at the state level (St CBs) d) Farmers service Cooperative Societies (FSCS) e) Only a, b and c 26. Which of the following banks are not insured by the DICGC? a) All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India b) Local area banks and regional rural banks c) Urban cooperative banks, functioning in States d) Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the DICGC e) All of the above 27. The security which is a claim on the government and is a secure financial instrument guarantees certainty of both capital and interest is called ___ a) Gilt-Edged Security b) Call Money c) Treasury Bills d) Certificate of Deposits e) All of the above 28. The minimum maturity period for Commercial Paper (CP) is _____ days. a) 14 b) 30 c) 45 d) 7 e) 365 29. NIXI stands for: a) National & International Exchange of India b) National Internet Exchange of India c) Notional Inter Exchange interest d) National and Intellectuals Exchange of India e) None of the above 30. Nomination facilities are applicable to which accounts? a) Deposit Accounts b) Articles in Safe Custody/ Deposit c) Locker Accounts d) Cash Credit Accounts e) a, b and c -
మ్యూచువల్ ఫండ్స్ యొక్క ప్రయోజనాలు
1. Hawala transactions in India are prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts? a) FRBM Act b) FEMA c) RBI Act d) FATF Act e) Banking Regulation Act 2. Advantages of Mutual Funds are: a) The transaction cost is very low b) Provides more security as compared to shares c) The small amounts gathered will be invested in diversified sectors d) Professional Management is provided through AMC e) All of the above 3. Issuing credit cards falls under ___ a) Corporate banking b) Rural banking c) Retail banking d) Micro finance e) None of these 4. Banks are considered as 'fina-ncial intermediaries', which of the following activity correctly and comprehensively explains the role of banks? a) Accepting deposits of money for the purpose of lending and investment b) Granting loans to the weaker sections of the society c) Accepting money for remittance and issuing bank drafts d) Providing safe deposit services e) Opening accounts and accepting deposits therein 5. Banks will come across different types of risks in their day to day activities. Which of the following is one such major risk? a) Customer risk b) Reputation c) Goodwill risk d) Protection risk e) Operational risk 6. What does the letter 'R' denotes in the abbreviation 'BR Act' which controls banking activities in the country? a) Reformation b) Regulation c) Reporting d) Resolution e) Ranking 7. Which of the following a largest private sector bank in India in respect of Number of branches/ business? a) AXIS Bank b) HDFC Bank c) ICICI Bank d) Kotak Mahindra e) None of these 8. When RBI increases CRR/ SLR it is said to be: a) Tight money policy b) Easy money policy c) Open money policy d) Closed money policy e) None of these 9. What per cent of Net bank credit are "domestic commercial banks required lending to Agricultural" sector? a) 12% b) 18% c) 15% d) 40% e) None of these 10. Which of the following banks was not nationalized in the first phase of Nationalization in the year 1969? a) Punjab National Bank b) Oriental Bank of Commerce c) Bank of Baroda d) Union Bank of India e) None of these 11. A savings bank account opened with a commercial bank with zero balance or very minimum balance is known as: a) Savings bank - ordinary account b) Student savings bank account c) No frill account d) Current account e) Safe deposit account 12. Personal Accident Insurance Scheme is available for KCC (Kisan Credit Card) holders. Who pay the insurance premium of Rs. 15? a) Bank Will pay entire premium b) KCC Holder will pay entire premium c) Bank and KCC holder will share equally d) Bank will pay Rs. 10/- and Rs 5/- will be debited to KCC holder's account e) KCC Holder will pay Rs. 10/- and Bank will pay the balance of Rs. 5/- 13. Which of the following are correct regarding NABARD? a) It manages Financial Inclusion Fund b) It operates Rural Infrastructure Development Fund c) Established on 12th July 1982 d) It is a Micro Finance Regulatory Authority e) All of the above 14. A nationalized bank is also called by the following name: a) Private Sector Bank b) Self Help Group c) Grameen bank d) Public Sector Bank e) None of these 15. Which of the following is incorrect? a) EXÏM bank is established in the year 1982 b) SIDBI was established in the year 1990 c) National Housing Bank was Created in the year 1988 d) IRDA was established in the year 1980 e) BIFR was established in the year 1987 16. Who headed the committee on financial benchmarks set up by RBI? a) Y Venugopal Reddy b) C Rangarajan c) Bimal Jalan d) Vijay Kelkar e) Vijaya Bhaskar 17. ____ is allowed by the Government of India to increase foreign shareholding from 49 per cent to 62 per cent recently. a) HDFC b) Axis Bank c) YES Bank d) ICICI bank e) None of the above 18. Which of the following is/ are considered as a valid proof of address while opening an acco-unt with a bank? a) PAN card b) Driving license c) Electricity bill d) Passport e) b, c & d 19. The target for providing finance to Weaker Sections, under priority sector stipulated by RBI is ____ a) 10% b) 18% c) 32% d) 40% e) None of these 20. The need for CTS - 2010 (Cheque Truncation System) is introduced for the purpose of: a) Attractive designing b) Uniform in digits c) Uniform security features d) To speed up clearing of instruments to help customers e) Both c and d 21. Who will guarantee cover to the loans given under CGTMSE? a) IRDA b) SEBI c) NABARD d) RBI e) SIDBI & GOI 22. Where is the headquarters of the bank for International Settlements (BIS) located? a) Hong Kong b) Vienna c) Mexico City d) Basel e) Antwerp 23. QCCP (Pertaining to payment and settlement section Act 2007) stands for: a) Queried Central Counterparty b) Qualifying Central Counterparty c) Qualitative Central Counterparty d) Quantitative Central Counterparty e) None of these 24. A Banking Ombudsman can reject a complaint at any stage on which of the following grounds? a) There is no loss or damage or inconvenience caused to the complaint in the option of the Banking Ombudsman b) The compensation sought from the banking Ombudsman is beyond Rs.10 lakh c) The complaint is not pursued by the complaint with reasonable diligence d) Any of the above e) Only 1 and 3 25. In banking terminology difference between interest earned and interest paid is called as: a) Margin b) Interest Income c) Spread d) Both b & c e) None of these 26. IBA at its meeting held on 20th August 2014 elected Mr./ Mrs. ___ as Chairman & Managing Director of IBA for the year (term) 2014-15. a) VR Iyer b) HR Kamath c) Arundhati Bhattacharya d) TM Bhasin e) MV Nair 27. SFMS, in banking parlance, stands for: a) Scheme for Marginal and Small Farmers b) Super Financial Message System c) Systematic Financial Messaging System d) Structured Financial Messaging System e) None of the above 28. Call money market deals in short term finance repayable on dema-nd with a maturity period varying from: a) 1 to 30 days b) 7 to 14 days c) 14 to 30 days d) 30 to 60 days e) 1 to 14 days 29. Which of the following is not a "Money Market Instrument"? a) Treasury Bills b) Commercial Paper c) Certificate of deposit d) Equity Shares e) None of these 30. At present Treasury bills are issued by Government of India through auctions with a maturity periods of: a) 91 days, 182 days, 364 days b) 20 days, 60 days, 180 days c) 30 days, 60 days, 180 days d) 60 days, 90 days, 180 days e) 90 days, 180 days, 360 days 31. Which of the following orga-nizations provides Credit Rating and Credit History (Information) of the borrowers? a) CRISIL, RBI b) SEBI, IRDA c) RBI, ICRA d) IBA, SEBI e) CRISIL, CIBIL 32. What is Money Laundering? a) Conversion of assets into cash b) Conversion of cash into gold c) Conversion of illegally obtained money into white money d) Conversion of gold into money e) None of these 33. "Reinsurance" means: a) Insuring twice for the same policy holder b) This meant for only Bank Loan Borrowers c) This is meant for Public Sector Employees d) It is a insurance policy issued by IRDA e) One insurance company insu-ring with another big and sound insurance company to manage its probable risks. 34. Apex Bank to take care of Agriculture Credit in India is: a) NABARD b) Co - operative bank c) RBI d) SBI e) None 35. As per RBI order, against the certificate of Deposit, the ___ a) Loan cannot be granted b) Loan can be granted c) Loan can be granted up to 50% of value d) Loan can be granted up to 75% of value e) None 36. Which of the private sector lenders introduced its own card 'Kisan Card' through which a farmer can withdraw up to Rs. 1 lakh per day from ATMs? a) HDFC b) ICICI c) Axis Bank d) Federal Bank e) Indus Ind bank 37. ___ % Net Bank Credit (NBC) to be given to priority sector lending by foreign banks as per the order of RBI? a) 50 b) 40 c) 60 d) 12 e) 32 38. Which one of the following is not an authorized means of banking transactions for the people in India? a) Mobile b) Online c) Phone d) Visiting Individually e) Video Conferencing 39. For violation of FEMA, prose-cution is done by: a) RBI b) DGFT c) FEDAI d) Enforcement Directorate e) None of these 40. Loans of very Small amount given to low income group is called? a) Cash Credit b) No Frill Credit c) Rural Credit d) Micro Credit e) Simple over Draft 41. When a cheque is dishonored for insufficiency of funds and the cheque is returned to Payee, who will give notice to whom? a) Drawer gives notice to the drawee within thirty days b) Drawee gives notice to the drawer within thirty days c) Payee gives notice to the drawer within thirty days d) Both drawee and drawer gives notice to payee within thirty days e) Any of the above 42. If you visit the branch of a bank, you will normally not see a department/ section/ counter named as ______ a) Cash b) Credit c) Customer care d) Housekeeping e) Retail Banking -
ఏ భాషలో సోర్స్ ప్రోగ్రాం రాస్తారు?
1. A small or intelligent device is socalled because it contains within it a: a) Computer b) Microcomputer c) Programmable d) Sensor e) Semi computer 2. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an: a) Interpreter b) CPU c) Compiler d) Simulator e) RAM 3. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? a) Pixel b) Reverse video c) Touch screen d) Cursor e) Note pad 4. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alterna-tive computer jargon for it? a) Leech b) Squid c) Slug d) Glitch e) Gunk 5. Which of the following devices can be used to directly image pri-nted text? a) OCR b) OMR c) MICR d) OCMR e) MCQ 6. In which language is source program written? a) English b) Symbolic c) Temporary d) English US e) High level 7. Which of the following is required when more than one person uses a central computer at the same time? a) Terminal b) Light pen c) Digitizer d) Mouse e) None of the above 8. The first digital computer built with IC chips was known as: a) IBM 7090 b) Apple - 1 c) VAX-10 d) Dell-1 e) IBM System / 360 9. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in colour, you would want to use a/n: a) RGB monitor b) Plotter c) Ink-jet printer d) Laser printer e) Joystick 10. The ALU of a computer nor-mally contains a number of high speed storage element called: a) Semiconductor memory b) Hard disks c) Magnetic disk d) All of the above e) Registers 11. Where can you find the hori-zontal split bar on MS Word screen? a) On the left of horizontal sc-roll bar b) On the right of horizontal scroll bar c) On the top of vertical scroll bar d) On the bottom of vertical scroll bar e) On the middle of horizontal scroll bar 12. What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer? a) To produce result b) To compare numbers c) To control flow of information d)To do math's works e) All the above 13. Any method for controlling access to or use of memory is known: a) Memory map b) Memory protection c) Memory management d) Memory instruction e) Memory allocation 14. Which of the following is a way to access secondary memory? a) Random access memory b) Action method c) Transfer method d) Density method e) Call method 15. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which menu will you choose? a) Edit b) View c) Tools d) Review e) Format 16. A __________is a pre-designed document that already has coor-dinating fonts, a layout, and a background. a) guide b) model c) ruler d) template e) supervisor 17. Which one of the following input device is user-programmable? a) Dumb terminal b) Smart terminal c) VDT d) Intelligent terminal e) None of the above 18. Where as a computer mouse moves over the table surface, the trackball is: a) Stationary b) Difficult to move c) Dragged d) Moved in small stems e) All the above 19. Two dimensional arrays are also called: a) Tables arrays b)Matrix arrays c) Line arrays d) Only A & B e) A, B and C 20. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n): a) Workstation b) CPU c) Magnetic disk d) Integrated circuit e) RAM -
టార్గెట్ ధరను ఇలా కూడా పిలుస్తారు ..
1. 'Product Line & Product Mix', the important areas, are covered by which of the following policy? a) Product b) Distribution c) Promotion d) Price e) Profit 2. Introduction, Growth ____ and ___ are the four stages of Product Life Cycle. a) Maturity, Saturation b) Maturity, Decline c) Decline, Maturity d) Saturation, Maturity e) None of the above 3. Sales Promotion Measures are suitable to achieve___term goals a) Short b) Medium c) Medium- Long d) Long e) Shortest 4. Product, Price, Promotional activities and the Distribution system are the four inputs, together known as ____ mix. a) Product b) Marketing c) Promotional d) Place e) Price 5. ''Find wants and Fill them '' is a theme described in which concept? a) Selling b) Marketing c) Product d) Production e) Consumer surplus 6. Modern Marketing Concept lays great importance on the freedom of the ___ a) Producer b) Seller c) Consumer d) Advertiser e) Dealer 7. Which of the following is related to Brand Name ____ a) Term b) Words c) Letters d) Both 'b' & 'c' e) None of the above 8. A set of assets & Liabilities lin-ked to a Brand is termed as ___ a) Brand Mark b) Brand Equity c) Brand Line d) Brand Loyalty e) Brand Ambassador 9. A Brand or that part of the Brand which is legally protected is called as ___ a) Trade Mark b) Brand Equity c) Brand Name d) Brand Valuation e) All of the above 10. Trademark is a name or mark which should be ___ a) Registered b) Legalized c) Franchised d) Both 'a' & 'b' e) Registered with Registrar of Companies 11. Product research deals with the Analysis of ____ a) Demand & Supply b) Product Line c) Advertisement Effectiveness d) Physical Distribution e) None of the above 12. During which stage of the 'Product Life Cycle' Profits are normally Negative or Very Nominal ____ a) Introduction b) Growth c) Decline d) Maturity e) In between Growth and decline 13. Which of the following is a function of Packaging ___ a) Protection b) Promotion c) Convenience d) Attraction e) All of the above 14. Length, Width, Depth & Consistency are the four Dimensions of ____ a) Product Item b) Product Line c) Product Mix d) Marketing Mix e) Demand Mix 15. During the 'Maturity' stage of the 'Product Life Cycle' Sales are ____ a) Low b) Declining c) At Peak, Stabilizing d) Rapidly Rising e) Reasonably good 16. Which of the following type of Marketing is Suitable to introduce a New Product ____ a) Concentrated b) Industrial c) Target d) Synchro e) Random 17. Penetration Pricing describes ____ a) Product penetrate into mar-kets to hold a position b) Adopting low prices in the initial stages c) Both 'a' &' b' d) None of the above e) All of the above 18. Skimming Pricing is otherwise called as ___ a) 'Skim the Cream' Pricing b) Odd Pricing c) Seated Bid Pricing d) Negotiated Pricing e) Discriminating pricing 19. 'Cost- Plus Pricing' is also known as ____ a) Discriminatory Pricing b) Pricing Lining c) Mark-Up Pricing d) Expected pricing e) Fixing price as per customer demand 20. Price is a determinant of ___ a) Profit b) Loss c) Cost d) Demand e) All of the above 21. Price is the ____ of a Product expressed in terms of ____ a) Quantity, Money b) Quantity, Cost c) Value, Money d) Value, Cost e) None of the above 22. Price is one of the four P's of ____ a) Product Mix b) Promotion Mix c) Marketing Mix d) Market Characteristics e) Human Resource Mix 23. Which of the following is not related to Skimming Pricing ____ a) To collect huge profit within a short period of time b) Is convenient in the case of fashion goods c) Is a short term policy d) Initial low price e) None of the above 24. The general objective of Marketing Cost Analysis is to ___ a) Obtain cost data for selling expense budget b) Determine relative profi-tability of various sales & marketing operations c) Keep expenses in line with sales expenses d) Analyze costs by territory e) Sell product at a lowest possible cost 25. In Marketing Cost Analysis, Selling Expenses are allocated according to ____ a) Size of Order b) Customers c) Territories d) Any of these e) None of the above 26. Which of the following is not related to penetration price? a) Initial low price b) Long term policy c) To capture the market in a gradual manner d) Heavy advertisement and promotional expenditure necessary e) Supplying free samples at new place of market 27. Target pricing is also known as ____ a) Cost- Oriented Pricing b) Break- Even Pricing c) Cost-Plus pricing d) Demand- Oriented pricing e) All of the above 28. Which of the following is considered as Social Aspects of Packaging ____ a) Attractiveness b) Bio- Degradability c) Name of the Manufacturer d) Convenience e) Informative 29. 'Market Demand ' is generally ____ a) More than market potential b) Less than market potential c) Equal to market potential d) Fluctuating over and below market potential e) Higher than expectations 30. Which of the following consists of analyzing marketing opportunities, developing marketing strategies & managing the marketing efforts? a) Marketing Functions b) Marketing Process c) Marketing Strategies d) Marketing Opportunities e) None of the above 31. The main feature of Marketing is that it is ___ oriented. a) Demand b) Production c) Consumer d) Competition e) All of the above 32. Why is it necessary for the entrepreneur to be in continuous touch with the changes in consumer behavior? a) To enable him to launch new products b) So that changes in existing products can be made to suit customer requirements c) Product can be stored d) All of the above e) a and b 33. What is the main aim of price skimming and penetration theory? a) Maximise profit b) Short range pricing objective c) Minimise cost d) Maximise cost e) None of the above 34. What is the defect of agricultural marketing in India? a) Lack of control b) Lack of organization c) Lack of Unity d) Lack of information related to market e) b, c and d 35. Another name of semi finished product is ___ a) Work b) Work in progress c) Progress of work d) Slow progress e) None of the above 36. Good marketing requires one of the following: a) Proper planning b) Good team work c) Good communication skills d) Knowledge of products e) All of the above 37. One of the following is not a target group for saving account ____ a) Salaried Persons b) Doctors c) Public servants d) Insurance agents e) Loss Marking Companies 38. The ultimate aim of Marketing is to provide ___ a) More business to the company b) More customers c) More staff d) More production e) More products 39. Target group of education loan is ____ a) All school students b) All college students c) All colleges d) All hospitals e) All schools 40. A ___ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product? a) product idea b) product image c) product concept d) product feature e) None of these -
జాతీయం బ్యాంకు మరొక పేరు?
1. The financial year of RBI is from: a) 1st January to 31st December b) 1st July to 30th June c) 1st October to 30th September d) 1st April to 31st March e) None of these 2. According to third Bi-Monthly Monetary Policy, RBI reduced SLR by 50 basic points. Accordingly the SLR w.e.f. 9th August 2014 is: a) 20.5% b) 5% c) 22% d) 22.5% e) 4% 3. Which of the following banks has launched 'Tiny Cards' with biometric identification to expand the coverage of banking services in rural parts of the country? a) ICICI bank b) NABARD c) State Bank of India d) Bank of India e) None of these 4. Government policy to raise in-come by additional taxes and allocation of expenditure is called: a) Expenditure policy b) Monetary policy c) Income policy d) Fiscal policy e) None of these 5. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are NOT correct with respect to the Banking Ombud-sman Scheme implemented in India? a) This scheme was introduced under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995 b) The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the RBI to redress customer complaints against deficiency banking services c) All Schedule Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co - operative Banks are covered under the scheme d) All of the above e) None of these 6. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is ____ a) RBI b) NABARD c) LIC d) Govt. of India e) IBA 7. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of Debit Card? a) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery to the proposed Card H b) No interest earning for banks c) Works like a normal withdrawal d) Can be used at ATM and POS e) 180 days credit is given to the card holder 8. Which of the following is not a type of Cheque? a) Crossed cheque b) Blank cheque c) Speed cheque d) Bearer cheque e) Order cheque 9. Which of the following Acts helps a bank in its day to day activities? a) Workmen competition Act b) Negotiable Instruments Act c) Industrial Dispute Act d) Consumer Protect Act e) NRI Act 10. 'Federal Reserve' is the Central Bank of which of the following countries? a) Russia b) Britain c) Canada d) Australia e) USA 11. A nationalized bank is also called by the following name: a) Private Sector Bank b) Self Help Group c) Grameena Bank d) Public Sector Bank e) None of these 12. Banks in India are regulated under ___ a) Companies Act, 1956 b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 d) Special powers conferred on the RBI e) None of these 13. Banking sector fall under which of the following? a) Agricultural Sector b) Industrial Sector c) Manufacturing Sector d) Service Sector e) Small Scale Sector 14. Loans of very small amounts given to low income groups is called ____ a) Cash Credit b) Micro Credit c) Simple overdraft d) No frills loans e) Rural credit 15. As per the new guidelines issued by the RBI, which of the following categories will be given relaxation in KYC norms while opening bank account and borrowing from the banks? A) Marginal Farmers b) Daily labourers c) Self help groups d) All of the above e) None of these 16. Name the first bank in the country to launch the reverse mortgage scheme? a) Bank of Baroda b) Punjab National Bank c) Canara Bank d) SBI e) None of these 17. Banks have started opening 'No Frill' accounts recently in order to help which of the following sections of customers? a) Weaker section of society b) High - value customers c) Students d) Loan - seekers who were not able to repay their loans taken earlier e) None of these 18. Digital banking means: a) Banking with calculators b) Banking with digital instrument c) Internet banking and Tele banking d) Export finance e) None of these 19. The banking system in India has mainly two types of Credit Control systems - quantitative and qualitative. Which of the following do(es) not fall under quantitative credit control? a) Bank Rate b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) c) Margin requirement d) All of the above e) None of these 20. Which of the following Rates/ Ratios is not covered under the Monetary and Credit policy of RBI? a) Bank rate b) Repo rate c) Cash reserve ratio d) Reserve repo rate e) Exchange rate of foreign currencies 21. The new Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for the banks commonly known as ___ a) Credit policy b) KYC c) Monetary Policy d) Basel Accord e) None of these 22. Which of the following is not a banking term? a) Letter of Guarantee b) RTGS c) CBS d) Speed Clearing e) Speed Post 23. The RBI asked banks to spell out their policy, procedures and size of the business on which of the following aspects of banking? a) On - shore banking b) Off - shore banking c) Investments in secondary market d) Wealth management e) None of these 24. What is the expanded form of ECS as used in banking sector? a) Effective Clearing System b) Electronic Confirmation System c) Electronic Clearing Service d) Enabled Clearing System e) None of these 25. Normally used deposit accounts of banks by customers are ____ a) Current Accounts, Electricity Accounts and Insurance Premium Accounts b) Current Accounts, Post office Savings Bank Accounts and Term Deposit Accounts c) Loan Accounts, Savings Bank Accounts and Term Deposit Accounts d) Current Accounts, Savings Bank Accounts and Term Deposit Accounts e) Current Bill KEY 1) b; 2) c; 3) c; 4) d; 5) e; 6) d; 7) e; 8) c; 9) b; 10) e; 11) d; 12) b; 13) d; 14) b; 15) c; 16) b; 17) c; 18) c; 19) c; 20) e; 21) d; 22) e; 23) d; 24) c; 25) d. -
మార్కెటింగ్ సర్వే
1. The performance of a sales person depends on ____ a) Ebility and willingness of the sales person b) Incentives paid c) Size of the sales team d) Team leader's attitude e) His aggressive nature 2. Service Marketing is resorted to in ____ a) All MNCs b) All production houses c) Industrial units d) Insurance companies and banks e) None of the above 3. Market Information means: a) Pamphlets b) Newsletters c) Word of mouth (WOM) - publicity d) Regional Advertisements e) Viral marketing 4. Aggressive marketing is necessitated due to: a) Globalization b) Increased competition c) Increased production d) Increased job opportunities e) Increased staff 5. SME means ____ a) Selling and marketing Employees b) Sales and Merges of Entities c) Small and Micro Entities d) Small and Medium Enter- prises e) Sales Performance Measure-ment Program 6. In 4P for marketing, the place relates to which aspects? a) Distribution b) Production c) Transportation d) a, b and c e) b and c 7. Delivery channels means ___ a) place from where the products are sold b) courier service c) distribution agencies d) delivery time e) offsite bank 8. A call in marketing terms means ___ a) a newly introduced product b) territory allocation for sales persons c) a call center d) a sales meeting e) to visit a Prospect 9. Find out the incorrect sentence from the following. a) KYC norms are not applicable for opening of Current Account. b) Education Loans can be granted to girl students at concessional rate of interest. c) Home loans are sanctioned as Term Loans. d) NRI customers are profitable customers. e) Online marketing is very costly. 10. What is the meaning of the term 'Load' in purchase or sale of securities? a) Log of wood b) Fee charged while buying or selling the units of a fund c) Share price at the time of buying d) Stamp duty e) Fund value 11. Market size also means ____ a) Marketing planning b) Market pricing c) Market space d) Market distribution e) None of the above 12. Which of the following is most relevant when there is fall in the market share? a) Sales have gone up b) Profit has gone up c) Prices are erratic d) Competition has increased e) Business is wound up 13. To 'Close a call' means ____ a) To end the conversation b) To put the phone down c) To close the doors d) To clinch the sale e) To close the business 14. A marketing survey is required for: a) Deciding marketing strategies b) Deciding product strategies c) Deciding pricing strategies d) Understanding the market pulse e) All of the above 15. Telemarketing means ____ a) Selling Telephones b) Sending SMS messages c) Chatting on the phone d) Marketing through phone calls e) Marketing in person 16. A safe Deposit Locker can be canvassed among: a) All existing account holders b) Persons below poverty line c) Students d) Jewelers e) ATM Cardholders 17. Marketing in banks has been necessitated due to: a) Globalization b) Excess staff c) Nationalization of banks d) Complacency among the staff e) Poor customer services 18. Which of the following additional tools are included in the marketing mix for services? a) People b) Physical evidence c) Process d) a, b and c e) a and b 19. What is the meaning of 'Cross s- selling'? a) Selling to enemies b) Selling new products c) Reversal of a sale d) Selling other products to exis-ting customers e) Public relations 20. Market space means _____ a) Place where goods are sold b) Trade fairs and meals c) Road shows d) Scope available for selling e) Competition 21. The target group for a Car loans: a) A High Income Individuals b) All car dealers c) All students d) All BPL persons e) Blind persons 22. The leads for a Car Loans can be got from ___ a) Car Manufacturing Compa- nies b) Car dealers c) Car owners d) Car mechanics e) Bank Office Staff 23. The target Group for Credit Cards is: a) Existing cardholders b) All graduates c) All minors d) Individuals who have regular source of income e) All of the above 24. Delivery channels other than bank counters are _____ a) ATM's b) Internet Banking c) Mobile Banking d) Tele Banking e) All of the above 25. Indirect Marketing means ____ a) Marketing by non - sales persons b) Market survey c) Market Research d) Advertisements e) All of the above 26. Effective Bank Marketing requires _____ a) Proper pricing b) Customized products c) Simple procedures d) Market research e) All of the above 27. The two components of a marketing strategy are: a) Marketing objectives and promotion b) Marketing mix and marketing objectives c) Target market and marketing mix d) Target markets and promotions e) Calling the prospective customers daily and sending persons personally to contact them 28. The marketing mix of an organization include product, price, promotion and ___ a) Packaging b) Premiums c) Place d) Purchasing e) Popularity 29. Which of the following can't be a market situation? a) One seller many buyers b) Many sellers and many buyers c) Few sellers and many buyers d) Many sellers and many buyers e) None of these 30. What type of competitive structure exists when a firm produces a product that has no close substitutes? a) Monopoly b) Oligopoly c) Monopolistic Competition d) Perfect competition e) Mixed competition 31. In terms of consumer demand and spending behavior, marketers are most interested in: a) Wealth b) Consumer Credit c) Disposable income d) Pretax income e) None of these 32. Individuals and business organization that buy finished and resell them to make profit without changing the physical characteristics of the product as classified as: a) Reseller markets b) Institutional markets c) Producer market d) Government market e) Open market 33. Market ____ is the process of identifying groups of customers with basically similar wants, needs, preference or buying behaviors a) Development b) Positioning c) Segmentation d) Targeting e) None of these 34. Marketing information system is concerned with information relating to which of the following? a) Customers b) Channel intermediaries c) Sales persons d) a, b and c e) b and c 35. Which of the following is not a part of the promotion process in marketing? a) Persuasion b) Information c) Reminding d) Reinforcing e) Manufacturing quality product KEY 1) a 2) d 3) c 4) b 5) d 6) a 7) c 8) e 9) e 10) b 11) c 12) d 13) d 14) e 15) d 16) a 17) a 18) d 19) d 20) d 21) a 22) b 23) d 24) e 25) d 26) e 27) c 28) c 29) e 30) a 31) c 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) e -
ప్రపంచ స్థానిక బ్యాంకు యొక్క ట్యాగ్ లైన్?
1. With the aim of achieving Financial Inclusion, Reserve Bank Of India has issued guidelines permitting the banks to employ ____ to facilitate Business Development. a) Business Correspondents b) Franchisees c) Business Facilitators d) Both 'a' and 'c' e) None of the above 2. In respect of CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises) No collateral and no third party guarantee for fund based and non fund based credit facilities up to ___ a) Rs. 10.00 lakhs b) Rs. 5.00 lakhs c) Rs.100 lakhs d) Rs. 5 lakhs e) None of the above 3. SME Stands for: a) Selling and Marketing Establishment b) Selling and Managing Employee c) Sales and Marketing entity d) Small and Medium Enterprises e) None of the above 4. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India? a) RBI b) SBI c) SIDBI d) SEBI e) None of the above 5. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is ______ a) International bank of India b) India's International bank c) Indian's Multinational Bank d) World's local Bank e) None of these 6. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Whi-ch of the following acts/ norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general? a) Banking Regulation Act b) Know Your Customer Norms c) Negotiable Instrument Act d) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act e) None of these 7. Which of the following is the Capital Market regulator? a) RBI b) IRDA c) NSE d) BSE e) SEBI 8. We know that RBI is the apex bank of India. Similarly the apex Bank of the USA is: a) Federal Reserve Bank b) The Central Bank of USA c) Bank of America d) Central National Bank of USA e) None of these 9. Authorized Dealers for foreign transactions are appointed by: a) Reserve Bank of India b) Government of India c) Individual Banks d) FEDAI e) None of these 10. As per the report published in the newspaper, the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/ are such credit rating agencies in India? (A) CARE (B) CRISIL (C) ULIP a) Only A b) Only B c) A and B d) Only C e) All A, B and C 11. As a practice, all banks now deduct some amount from their pre- tax income and set aside in a separate account to create a cushion for the loans which may go bad. This is called: a) CRR b) SLR c) Provisioning d) PLR e) None of these 12. Sales above Breakeven point is called ___ a) Margin of Safety b) Gross Profit c) Net profit d) b & c e) None of the above 13. In banking world when a loan given by a bank to an individual or organization is not returned by the borrower wishfully or otherwise, it is known as ___ (A) Standard Asset (B) Non - Performing Asset (C) Over Draft a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) None of these 14. The power of the commercial banks to expand deposits through expanding their loans and advances is known as ____. a) Capital Expansion b) Credit Expansion c) Credit control d) Credit Creation e) None of the above 15. The Securitization And Recons-truction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act (SARFAESI) meant for recovery of loans which have become NPA is not applicable to: a) Public Sector banks b) Financial Institutes of the Govt. c) Private Banks d) Non - Banking Financial Companies e) Small & Cooperative Banks 16. FDI refers to? a) Fixed Deposit Interest b) Fixed Deposit Investment c) Foreign Direct Investment d) Future Derivative Investment e) None of these 17. World's local bank is the tag line of: a) HDFC b) HSBC c) CITY BANK d) SBI e) None of these 18. As we have noticed, many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/ branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace? (A) These banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation (B) These banks wish to help Indian firms, to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates (C) These Banks wish to promote trade and investment betw-een India and other countries a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A, B and C e) Only B and C 19. Which of the following is NOT a banking / finance - related term? a) Cash Credit b) EMI c) Held to maturity d) Exposure limit e) Diffusion 20. Who is the new Deputy Gove-rnor of Reserve Bank of India? a) SS Mundra, CMD of Bank of Baroda b) VR Iyer, CMD of Bank of India c) RK Dubey, CMD, Canara Bank d) SL Bansal, CMD, Oriental Bank of Commerce e) None of the above 21. The term "kite flying" in banking refers to: a) Drawing a cheque without providing sufficient funds to meet it. b) Drawing and acceptance of a bill of exchange without consideration with a view to accommodate the other party. c) The practice of paying usance bills before they become due. d) Drawing a post-dated cheque. e) None of the above 22. Which is the first bank in India to launch its interactive banking service through Dish TV? a) SBI b) ICICI Bank c) HDFC Bank d) Axis Bank e) None of these 23. Which is the first bank in India to produce Green Power for captive use through wind mills? a) HDFC b) ICICI c) SBI d) Axis Bank e) None of these 24. Which category of accounts is opened under Financial Inclus-ion? a) Senior Citizen Deposit b) Super Saver Accounts c) No - Frill Accounts d) SBI Vishesh e) None 25. Which of the following is correct? a) Headquarters of National Insurance Company Ltd. is at Kolkata b) Headquarters of New India Assurance Co. Ltd. is at Mumbai c) Headquarters of Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. is at New Delhi d) Headquarters of United India Insurance Company Ltd. is at Chennai e) All of the above 26. The new corporate governance norms approved by SEBI would become applicable for all listed companies with effect from: a) 01 September 2014 b) 01 November 2014 c) 01 January 2015 d) 01 October 2014 e) None of the above 27. Who has taken over charge as CMD of IDBI bank in July 2014? a) MV Nair b) MS Raghavan c) KR Kamath d) Sadhuram Bansal e) TM Bashin 28. Maximum compensation an Ombudsman is empowered to award in respect of deficiency in service of the Credit Card operations is: a) Rs. 50,000/- b) Rs. 1 lakh c) Rs. 5 lakh d) Rs. 10 lakh e) No limit 29. Headquarters of ABN Amro Bank is located in ___ a) The Netherlands b) France c) Taiwan d) Canada e) Singapore 30. Which of the following are rating Agencies? a) Standard and Poor b) CRISIL c) ICRA d) CARE e) All of the above 31. As per the findings of the World Bank, which of the following recent developments in rural areas has doubled the income of rural households, raised literacy rate by 10% and appreciated land prices by up to 80%? a) Relief packages to the farmers b) Construction of all - weather roads c) Recharging of water bodies d) Rainwater harvesting e) None of these KEY 1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) b 6) b 7) e 8) a 9) a 10) c 11) c 12) a 13) b 14) d 15) d 16) c 17) b 18) e 19) e 20) a 21) b 22) b 23) c 24) c 25) e 26) d 27) b 28) b 29) a 30) e 31) a. -
The Perception of Price Depends on..
1. Which of the following is one of the important standard marke- ting practices? a) Poaching b) Business ethics c) Unhealthy competition d) Phishing e) Discount schemes to attract more customers 2. Sales curve move through various phases within its life cycle. Which of the following is not such phase? a) Introduction b) Growth c) Maturity d) Decline e) None of these 3. Which of the following are the characteristics of service products? a) Inseparability b) Variability c) Intangibility d) Perishability e) All of the above 4. The abbreviation for ISP is: a) International Spy Project communication b) Indian Social Planning c) Initial Service Provider d) Internet Service Provider e) None of the above 5. Unplanned purchases of a con- sumer are called: a) Impulse buying b) Irregular Demand c) Unwholesome buying d) Latent demand e) None of these 6. In terms of consumer demand and spending behavior, markets are most interested in ___ a) Consumer credit b) Wealth c) Disposable income d) Pretax income e) High Income 7. The advantage of telephone interview is: a) Relatively low cost per interview b) Good for reaching important people who are inaccessible c) Good for reaching important people who are inaccessible d) Securing Co-operation which is not always possible e) a and b 8. While making a research for introducing a new product, different types of interviews is conducted. In this process a depth interview is most likely to be used to ____ a) alter a buyer's attitude towa- rds a product b) influence a buyers percep- tions of a product c) identify a buyers personality d) increase a buyers knowledge of a product e) discover the buyers motives 9. _____ is the difference between the cost of a good or service and its selling price. a) Target return pricing b) Value pricing c) Marginal cost pricing d) Markup pricing e) Group pricing 10. Marketing mix does not include: a) Distribution b) Product c) Target Marketing d) Pricing e) None of these 11. Demographic factors influencing consumer behavior depends on: a) Age b) Gender c) Language d) Income e) All of the above 12. Which of the following statements concerning marketing research is NOT CORRECT? a) Secondary research can be organized in house or via a research agency b) No research is required to market a product c) Secondary research is quicker than primary research d) Secondary research is chea- per than primary research e) None of these 13. The remedy against Unfair Com- petition by Misrepresentation is based on the law of ____ a) Equity b) Pairing off c) Product proliferation d) Passing off e) None of these 14. A paid form of non personal presentation and promotion is called: a) Direct marketing b) Advertising c) Personal selling d) Product modification e) Public relation 15. The perception of price depends on: a) A consumer's analysis of competitive prices b) A product's actual price and consumers' expectations reg- arding price c) A consumer's expectation of price d) All of the above e) None of the above 16. As a councilor, a personnel manager ____ a) reminds the management of moral obligations towards employees. b) encourages the employees. c) should inform the employees of their deficiencies in their work. d) tries to settle the disputes bet- ween labour & management. e) All of the above 17. Which growth strategy focuses on developing new product for a company's existing markets? a) Market Penetration b) Product Development c) Market Development d) Diversification e) None of these 18. Which of the following is the key feature of oligopolistic competition? a) Emphasis on price competi- tion b) Complete absence of compet- ition c) Emphasis on product differe- ntiation d) Interdependence of suppliers e) None of these 19. Developing a promotional progr- amme for a new service starts with ____ a) choosing a promotional mes-sage b) determining promotional objectives c) choosing an appropriate medium d) evaluating alternative e) None of these 20. _____ channel is only used in banking services. a) Consumer marketing b) Producer marketing c) Direct marketing d) Indirect marketing e) None of these 21. Who among the following is least likely to be directly invol- ved in actually making sales? a) Order taker b) Current - customer sales- person c) Order booking staff d) Support personnel e) Field order taker 22. While finalizing the sales promotion objectives, a marketer should always ____ a) concentrates on activities that will increase consumer demand b) focuses on consumers c) be defensive in the methods used d) align objectives with the org- anisations overall objective e) None of these 23. Promotion through Electronic Media: a) Is cheap b) Is must for every product promotion c) Is appealing though costly d) a and b e) None of these 24. Which type of advertisement is most useful for adventure travels? a) Distribution through local network b) Use of 'High street' travel agents c) Direct sales from tour operator to customer d) Sales through wholesaler e) None of these 25. Value for money of a product can be best defined as: a) A technical measure of a company's selling price related to its production cost b) A measure of the mark-up price charged by companies c) The lowest prices available to consumers d) The best ratio of benefits to costs available to buyers e) None of these 26. Which among the following is a part of 5 Ms of Marketing? a) Market b) Management c) Money d) Manpower e) All of the above 27. Which among the following is not an example of convenience goods? a) Tea b) Coffee c) News paper d) Shirts e) All of the above 28. ____ is the LEAST preferred promotion media for business to business marketers. a) Direct mail b) Television c) Trade publications d) Personal selling e) All of the above 29. Find the true statement. a) Marketing is a waste of the employee's time b) Market is not required in Ind- ia due to its vast population c) Marketing involves additio- nal work d) Marketing involves team work e) None of these 30. Deceptive ____ includes such practices as false advertising "factory" or "wholesale" price. a) Pricing b) Packaging c) Promotion d) Products e) All of the above 31. Like 7 'P's of marketing, there are 7 'O's of consumer behav- iour. One of the parts of 7 'O's: a) Object b) Objective c) Outlets d) Operation e) All of the above 32. Labeling is important for infor- mational, legal and ___reasons. a) Marketing b) Branding c) Promotional d) Strategic e) None of these 33. Which of the following is most likely to stimulate middle class buyers? a) Unexpected value added services b) Good reception c) Discounts on festive seasons d) Buy one get one free e) All of the above 34. _____ is the term that is often used to describe the value of a product. a) Brand position b) Brand equity c) Brand mapping d) Brand image e) None of these 35. ____ is called as 'Prospect'. a) A team leader b) A likely buyer c) A rude person d) A religious head e) A polite person 36. The label on hair dye packet 'we dye for you" is written to tell the product purpose and also to __ a) promote the product b) provide information c) encourage multiple purchases d) All of the above e) None of the above 37. Which of the following countries has made the greatest inroads into world markets? a) Indonesia b) China c) Japan d) Philippines e) Malaysia
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