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Banks Special
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నాటో కొత్త సెక్రటరీ జనరల్ ఎవరు?
Banks Special General Awareness Current Affairs 2014 at a glance * Two Indian Americans Sriram Hathwar and Ansun Sujoe became the co-champions of the Scripps National Spelling Bee contest held in USA. * The Tax Administration Reform Commission (TARC) headed by Parthasarathi Shome suggested abolition of the post of Revenue Secretary and merger of CBDT and CBEC. * The 40th G7 Summit was held in Brussels, Belgium in June 2014. This Summit was held without Russia. * Indian Vice President Hamid Ansari visited China to celebrate the 60th anniversary of signing of the Panchsheel in June 2014. * Indian-origin V.K. Rajah was appointed the Attorney-General of Singapore. * General Dalbir Singh Suhag succeeded General Bikram Singh as the 26th Chief of Indian Army on July 31, 2014. Chief of Air Staff Air Chief Marshal Arup Raha took over as the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) on July 30, 2014. * Shashi Kant Sharma, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) became a Member of the United Nations Board of Auditors for a term of six years. * The President appointed new Governors for six States in July 2014. They are: Kaptan Singh Solanki - Haryana, Balramji Das Tandon- Chhaatisgarh, Keshari Nath Tripath- West Bengal, Ram Naik- Uttar Pradesh, Padmanabha Acharya - Nagaland and Om Prakash Kohli - Gujarat. * S.S. Mundra is the fourth Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. He will have tenure of 3 years. * Former External Affairs Minister and a senior Congress Party leader K.Natwar Singh released his autobiography 'One Life is Not Enough'. * Out of 187 countries, India is ranked 135th in the 2014 UNDP Human Development Index. Norway is the topper * Germany won the 2014 FIFA World Cup. It beat Argentina in the final played at the Maracana Stadium in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil on July 13, 2014. It is Germany's 4th World Cup Football title. * Novak Djokovic of Serbia defeated Roger Federer of Switzerland in Wimbledon men's singles tennis final. In the Wimbledon women's singles final Petra Kvitova of Czech Republic beat Eugenie Bouchard of Canada. * The 6th BRICS Summit was held in July 2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil. The leaders signed a document to create the $100 billion New Development Bank. Its headquarters will be in Shanghai, China and the first President will be from India for a six year term. It is Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi's first Summit. * Sadananda Gowda presented the Railway Budget on July 8, 2014. Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley tabled the Economic Survey 2013-14 in Parliament on July 9, 2014 and presented his maiden Budget on July 10, 2014. * Harry Potter fame actress Emma Watson was appointed Goodwill Ambassador by UN Women. Tennis player Sania Mirza is the brand ambassador for Telangana State. * Recep Tayyip Erdogan is the new President of Turkey and Ahmet Davutoglu is the new Prime Minister of Turkey. * General Prayuth Chan-ocha took over as the Prime Minister of Thailand in August 2014. * In August 2014 four more States got new Governors. Rajasthan - Kalyan Singh, Maharashtra - Ch. Vidyasagar Rao, Karnataka- Vajubhai Vala and Goa- Mridula Sinha. * Congress leader K.V. Thomas is the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. * Former Chief Justice of India Justice P. Sathasivam was appointed the Governor of Kerala in September 2014. * Daman Singh, the daughter of the former Prime Minister of India Dr. Manmohan Singh, has written a book "Strictly Personal: Manmohan and Gursharan". * Narendra Modi launched Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) on August 28, 2014. The aim of the scheme is the financial inclusion of all Indians. * Manjul Bhargava, a mathematician of Indian origin won the Field Medal. He was conferred the award at the International Congress of Mathematicians held in Seoul, South Korea in August. * Former RBI Governor Bimal Jalan was appointed the Chairman of the Expenditure Management Commission. * Jaipur Pink Panthers beat U Mumba to emerge champion of the inaugural STAR ProKabaddi League in Mumbai on August 31. * The 2014 Summer Youth Olympics were held from August 16 to 28, 2014 in Nanjing, China. China topped the medals tally with 65 medals, including 38 Gold. India got two medals. Weightlifter Ragala Venkata Rahul bagged a silver medal and Atul Verma won a bronze in Archery. * Shah Rukh Khan was appointed the ambassador of 'Turn Back Crime' campaign of Interpol. Amitabh Bachchan is Maharashtra's horticulture ambassador. * India and Australia signed a civil nuclear agreement on September 5, 2014. The deal was signed during the visit of the Australian Prime Minister Tony Abbott. * The 20th edition of the Commonwealth Games was held from July 23 to August 3, 2014 in Glasgow, Scotland. England topped the medal chart with 174 medals. India bagged 64 medals and finished fifth. * Marin Cilic of Croatia defeated Kei Nishikori of Japan to win the 2014 US Open men's singles tennis title. Serena Williams of USA won women's singles title beating Caroline Wozniacki of Denmark in the final. The mixed doubles title was won by India's Sania Mirza and Brazil's Bruno Soares. * The 17th Asian Games were held in Incheon, South Korea from September 19 to October 4, 2014. China topped the medals tally with 342 medals. India won 57 medals and took the 8th position. * Chennai Super Kings won the Champions League T20 title, defeating Kolkata Knight Riders in the final in Bangalore on October 4, 2014. * Narendra Modi launched the Swachh Bharat Mission on the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi on October 2, 2014. The Mission aims to make India clean by October 2, 2019, Mahatma Gandhi's 150th birth anniversary. * Ancient Nalanda University was inaugurated after 800 years on September 19, 2014 by External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj in Bihar. The Chancellor is Amartya Sen and the Vice Chancellor is Gopa Sabharwal. * The Union Government launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyo-daya Yojana for urban and rural poor on September 25, 2014. * The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Summit was held in Wales, UK on September 4-5, 2014. * Ashraf Ghani was sworn in as the new President of Afghanistan on September 29, 2014. * John Key was re-elected the Prime Minister of New Zealand. * O.Pannerselvam became the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu succeeding Jayalalithaa. * Justice H.L. Dattu became the 42nd Chief Justice of India on September 28, 2014. * Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award 2014 was presented to A. Sivathanu Pillai, an eminent missile scientist. * October 31 was celebrated as National Unity Day. It is the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, India's first Home Minister. * Devendra Fadnavis became the Chief Minister of Maharashtra and Manohar Lal Khattar was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Haryana in October 2014. Both are from BJP. Laxmikant Parsekar of BJP is the new Goa Chief Minister. * India was reelected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) for the period of 2015 to 2017. * Dilma Rousseff was re-elected for her second four-year term as the President of Brazil. * Australian author Richard Flanagan won the 2014 Man Booker Prize for his novel "The Narrow Road to the Deep North". * Pakistani girls' rights activist Malala Yousafzai shared the 2014 Nobel Peace Prize with India's Kailash Satyarthi. She also won the World's Children's Prize given by Sweden and America's Liberty Medal. * Former Prime Minister of Nor-way Jens Stoltenberg became the 13th Secretary General of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) on October 1, 2014. * Arvind Subramanian is the new Chief Economic Adviser and Rajiv Mehrishi is the new Finance Secretary of India. * Indian Prime Minister attended the 9th G20 Summit in Brisbane, Australia in November 2014. * The 18th SAARC Summit was held in November 2014 in Kathmandu, Nepal. * Anil Kumar Sinha is the new Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Rajinder Khanna is the new Chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW). Prakash Mishra is the new Director General of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF). * The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 is given to the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). * Rolene Strauss of South Africa was crowned Miss World 2014 in London on December 14, 2014. -
కొత్త సిబిఐ డైరెక్టర్ ఎవరు?
Banks Special General Awareness 1. Which of the following State governments launched Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi Concrete Road Nirman Scheme on December 5, 2014? 1) Assam 2) Gujarat 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Bihar 5) Jharkhand 2. Ashton Carter was nominated by President Barack Obama on December 5, 2014 to replace Chuck Hagel as the United States Secretary of? 1) State 2) Defense 3) Treasury 4) Agriculture 5) Commerce 3. Who was named 'Asian of the Year' by The Straits Times, Singapore's leading daily on December 5, 2014? 1) Xi Jinping 2) Shinzo Abe 3) Narendra Modi 4) Thein Sein 5) Li Keqiang 4. Who took charge as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Director on December 3, 2014? (He succeeded Ranjit Sinha) 1) Amar Pratap Singh 2) Ratan Kumar Sinha 3) Ashok Tiwari 4) Anil Kumar Sinha 5) R.S. Bhatti 5. Jamil Mahuad was sentenced to 12 years in prison for misappropriating public funds. He is the former President of? 1) Libya 2) Ecuador 3) Uganda 4) Kenya 5) Mexico 6. What does CTS stand for? 1) Cheque Termination System 2) Cheque Truncation System 3) Cheque Transaction System 4) Cheque Transaction Scheme 5) None of these 7. Who took charge as the new United States interim Ambassador to India on June 6, 2014? 1) Nancy Powell 2) Penny Pritzker 3) Kathleen Stephens 4) Nisha Desai Biswal 5) Susan Rice 8. Who was honored with 'Champions of Change' by the White House for her exemplary leadership in her community? 1) Pratishtha Khanna 2) Anita Goel 3) Sangeeta Bhatia 4) Usha Haley 5) None of these 9. Identify the mismatched pair? 1) Solicitor General - Ranjit Kumar 2) National Security Adviser - Ajit Doval 3) Comptroller and Auditor General - Shashikant Sharma 4) Principal Secretary to the PM - Nripender Mishra 5) Finance Secretary - Arvind Mayaram 10. The ninth G20 Summit was held recently in which of the following countries? 1) South Korea 2) Russia 3) UK 4) China 5) None of these 11. Who among the following was recently appointed the President of Chile? 1) Dilma Rousseff 2) Christina Fernandez 3) Michelle Bachelet 4) Evo Morales 5) None of these 12. What is the maximum number of withdrawals allowed per month in Basic Savings Bank Deposit Accounts (BSBDA)? 1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 5) No restrictions 13. Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched on the birth anniversary of which of the following leaders? 1) Sardar Vallabhai Patel 2) Lal Bahadur Shastri 3) Mahatma Gandhi 4) Jayaprakash Narayan 5) Deendayal Upadhyaya 14. Who won the Samsung Most Valuable Player at the 17th Asian Games? 1) Yogeshwar Dutt 2) Jitu Rai 3) Sania Mirza 4) Sardar Singh 5) Mary Kom 15. Who won the 2014 Baileys Women's Prize for Fiction? 1) Jhumpa Lahiri 2) Eimear McBride 3) Anita Desai 4) Eleanor Catton 5) Kiran Desai 16. Juan Carlos reigned as the king of which of the following countries from 1975 to 2014? 1) Austria 2) UK 3) Portugal 4) Spain 5) Netherlands 17. Who won the 2014 Scripps National Spelling Bee contest? 1) Kavya Shivshankar 2) Balu Natarajan 3) Anamika Veermani 4) Arvind Mahankali 5) Sriram Hathwar and Ansun Sujoe 18. Gary Gilmour died on June 10, 2014. He was a fast bowler who played 15 Tests for? 1) Australia 2) New Zealand 3) South Africa 4) West Indies 5) None of these 19. Which of the following refers to the amount that the commercial banks require to maintain in the form of gold or Government approved securities before lending? 1) Repo rate 2) Bank rate 3) CRR 4) SLR 5) MSF 20. Which of the following States has a woman Chief Minister? 1) Tamil Nadu 2) Goa 3) Uttar Pradesh 4) Bihar 5) Rajasthan 21. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was set up in? 1) 1944 2) 1954 3) 1960 4) 1964 5) 1950 22. Which of the following crops requires water logging for its cultivation? 1) Tea 2) Coffee 3) Sorghum 4) Mustard 5) Paddy 23. Who is the author of the novel 'A Girl is a Half-formed Thing'? 1) Chimamanda Ngozi 2) Hannah Kent 3) Jhumpa Lahiri 4) Donna Tartt 5) Eimear McBride 24. Who is the Ambassador/ Permanent Representative of India to the World Trade Organization? 1) Shefali Razdan Duggal 2) Sujatha Singh 3) Anjali Prasad 4) Meera Shankar 5) None of these 25. David Allen died on May 25, 2014. He played 39 Tests for? 1) Australia 2) England 3) South Africa 4) West Indies 5) New Zealand 26. The Election Commission conducts elections to the? 1) Parliament 2) State Legislatures 3) Office of the President 4) Office of the Vice President 5) All the above 27. The International Rice Research Institute is in? 1) USA 2) Mexico 3) Japan 4) China 5) Philippines 28. Agronomy deals with? 1) Breeding of crop plants 2) Protection of crops from pests 3) Protection of crops from diseases 4) Principles and Practice of crop production 5) None of these 29. The policy of Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization was announced as New Economic Policy by? 1) Rajiv Gandhi 2) V.P. Singh 3) P.V. Narasimha Rao 4) Atal Behari Vajpayee 5) I.K. Gujral 30. The National Centre for Agricultural Economics and Policy Research (NCAP) is located at? 1) New Delhi 2) Hyderabad 3) Bangalore 4) Mumbai 5) Chennai 31. Hindustan Zinc Limited will build 30,000 toilets for poor families in rural areas in? 1) Gujarat 2) Rajasthan 3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Telangana 5) Chhattisgarh 32. The Pilibhit wildlife sanctuary got tiger reserve status with effect from June 9, 2014. It is in? 1) Odisha 2) Madhya Pradesh 3) Chhattisgarh 4) Jharkhand 5) Uttar Pradesh 33. Kashagan oil field is in which of the following countries? 1) Russia 2) Ukraine 3) Kazakhstan 4) Kyrgyzstan 5) Armenia 34. Which of the following days was declared as the International Day of Sport for Development and Peace by the United Nations General Assembly? 1) May 13 2) July 31 3) May 31 4) April 6 5) June 6 35. Neermahal is a former royal palace situated in? 1) Assam 2) Rajasthan 3) Gujarat 4) Manipur 5) Tripura 36. IFAD stands for? 1) International Fund for Agricultural Development 2) International Fund for Aquatic Development 3) International Fund for Asia's Development 4) International Fund for Africa's Development 5) None of these 37. FAO is a part of? 1) World Bank 2) International Monetary Fund 3) Asian Development Bank 4) United Nations Organization 5) World Trade Organization 38. The term 'double fault' is associated with which of the following sports? 1) Cricket 2) Hockey 3) Chess 4) Football 5) Tennis 39. What is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio at present? 1) 22.5 percent 2) 22 percent 3) 23 percent 4) 24 percent 5) None of these 40. Who among the following is one of the four deputy governors of the Reserve Bank of India? 1) Raghuram Rajan 2) P.Vijaya Bhaskar 3) Y.H. Malegam 4) Nachiket Mor 5) None of these KEY 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 2 6) 2 7) 3 8) 1 9) 5 10) 5 11) 3 12) 3 13) 4 14) 5 15) 2 16) 4 17) 5 18) 1 19) 4 20) 5 21) 4 22) 5 23) 5 24) 3 25) 2 26) 5 27) 5 28) 4 29) 3 30) 1 31) 2 32) 5 33) 3 34) 4 35) 5 36) 1 37) 4 38) 5 39) 2 40) 5. -
ఐసిసి క్రికెటర్ ఆఫ్ ది ఇయర్ ?
1. ING Vysya Bank has decided to merge with which of the following private banks? 1) ICICI Bank 2) Axis Bank 3) HDFC Bank 4) Kotak Mahindra Bank 5) Yes Bank 2. Who received the prestigious Colonel CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award on November 21, 2014? 1) Sunil Gavaskar 2) Dilip Vengsarkar 3) Syed Kirmani 4) G.R. Viswanath 5) K. Srikkanth 3. Who was honored with the centenary award for Indian Film Personality of the Year 2014 on November 20, 2014? 1) Amitabh Bachchan 2) Kamal Hasan 3) Rajinikanth 4) Shah Rukh Khan 5) Waheeda Rehman 4. Who is the winner of the Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for ICC Cricketer of the Year? (It was announced in November 2014) 1) Michael Clarke 2) Kumar Sangakkara 3) AB de Villiers 4) Mitchell Johnson 5) Dale Steyn 5. Who among the following is/are serving as the Chief Minister of a State for the first time? 1) K. Chandrasekara Rao 2) Jitan Ram Manjhi 3) Anandiben Patel 4) Both 1 and 3 5) All 1, 2 and 3 6. Which one of the following books is written by Hillary Clinton? 1) Central Time 2) The Goldfinch 3) Hard Choices 4) The Last Word 5) None of these 7. Who has been appointed the Chairman of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal? 1) Justice RM Lodha 2) Justice Madan B. Lokur 3) Justice M.Y. Eqbal 4) Justice B.S. Chauhan 5) Justice Arjan Kumar Sikri 8. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is headquartered in? 1) Geneva 2) London 3) Berne 4) Vienna 5) Paris 9. ITU presented the 2014 World Telecommunication and Information Society Award to Paul Kagame, the President of? 1) Uganda 2) Democratic Republic of Congo 3) Rwanda 4) Niger 5) Nigeria 10. The James Beard Foundation Awards are given for excellence in? 1) Poetry 2) Television 3) Films 4) Cuisine 5) Sculpture 11. Donetsk and Luhansk are the cities in? 1) Ukraine 2) Kazakhstan 3) Georgia 4) Poland 5) Portugal 12. Which country topped the Press Freedom Index for 2014? (India is ranked 78) 1) Netherlands 2) Norway 3) Sweden 4) Belgium 5) Finland 13. In the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, in which of the following States the Bharatiya Janata Party did not win all the seats? 1) Gujarat 2) Rajasthan 3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Uttarakhand 5) Madhya Pradesh 14. Which is the third largest party in the 16th Lok Sabha? 1) Trinamool Congress 2) AIADMK 3) Biju Janata Dal 4) Shiv Sena 5) CPI (M) 15. 2015 marks the 150th anniversary of which of the following agencies of the United Nations Organization? 1) UNICEF 2) UNEP 3) ILO 4) ICAO 5) ITU 16. India successfully test-fired indigenously developed Akash, which is a/an? 1) Surface to surface missile 2) Air to air missile 3) Surface to air missile 4) Subsonic missile 5) None of these 17. What is the full form of GIRO? 1) General Instant Recurring order 2) General Interlinked Recurring Order 3) General International Recurring Order 4) General Interbank Recurring Order 5) None of these 18. In banking CASA stands for? 1) Corporate Account, Savings Account 2) Current Account, Savings Account 3) Current Account, Service Account 4) Corporate Account, Service Account 5) None of these 19. Rakhigarhi is a Harappan civilization site in? 1) Gujarat 2) Rajasthan 3) Haryana 4) Punjab 5) Himachal Pradesh 20. Shiv Chowrasia is a player associated with? 1) Golf 2) Squash 3) Billiards 4) Polo 5) Table Tennis 21. In the 7th IPL edition which bowler won the Purple Cap? 1) Sunil Narine 2) Bhuvneswar Kumar 3) Sandeep Sharma 4) Ravindra Jadeja 5) Mohit Sharma 22. Pilot testing of plastic currency notes will not be done in which of the following cities? 1) Shimla 2) Kochi 3) Mysore 4) Jaipur 5) Mumbai -
కరెన్సీ స్వాప్ ఒక నిర్వహణ పరికరం?
Banks Special 1. Which of the following banks has recently introduced mobile banking service for its customers, to commemorate 50 years of its journey in the Indian financial sector? a) Union Bank of India b) IDBI Bank c) Kerala Grameena Bank d) Karur vysya Bank e) ICICI Bank 2. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage? a) Interest rate risk b) Currency risk c) Currency and interest rate risk d) Cash inflows in different currencies e) All of the above 3. The RBI widened infrastructure sector lending sub-category recently. Which of the following sectors qualify for infrastructure sector lending? a) Communication b) Water and sanitation c) Energy d) Transport e) All the above 4. Expand the term IMPS. a) Immediate Mobile Payment Service b) Inter-Mobile Payment Service c) International Mobile Payment Service d) Instant Payment Service e) None of these 5. Doha Bank , which has been sanctioned licence to start its operations in India, belongs to which of the following countries? a) Kuwait b) Iran c) Bahrain d) Qatar 6. CAPART (Council for Advancement of People's Action and Rural Technology) is associated with which of the following? a) Energy Sector b) Rural Development c) Infrastructure d) Foreign Trade e) None of these 7. How many alphabets will be there in PAN CARD provided by Income Tax Department? a) Four b) Five c) Seven d) Three e) SIX 8. Which of the following banks has recently approved 30 million US dollars loan to Assam which will help it in its drive to eliminate power sector inefficiencies that are hurting its consumers, its world-famous tea industry, and its environment? a) World Bank b) Asian Development Bank c) Yes Bank d) Indian Bank e) All of the above 9. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India? a) Banking Regulation Act b) Essential Commodities Act c) RBI Regulation Act d) RBI and Banking Regulation Act e) None of these 10. Which of the following companies will be provided equity investment of 50 million US dollars by The Asian Development Bank ? a) Tata Power b) NTPC c) ReNew Power Ventures Private Limited d) NHPC e) None of these 11. Which of the following can be obtained only from a bank? a) Demand draft b) Postal Stamps c) Judicial Stamp Papers d) Birth Certificates e) All of these 12. SBI has launched six digital branches across the country as part of its programme to offer next generation banking solutions. What is the name given to these digital branches? a) SBI Digital b) SBI Intouch c) SBI Tech d) Digi SBI e) None of these 13. C Rangarajan Committee has recently submitted its report on which of the following matters? a) Sanitation b) Food c) Poverty d) Education e) All of these 14. Which among the following committee is set up for giving clear definitions to FDI and FII with an aim to remove ambiguity over the two types of foreign investments? a) Gopinath committee b) Subir Gokarn committee c) Arvind Mayaram committee d) Sushma Nath committee e) None of these 15. The erstwhile UTI Bank is presently known as: a) ING Vaisya Bank b) Yes Bank c) Indus Ind Bank d) Axis Bank e) IDBI 16. The abbreviation UIDAI stands for a) Unique Identification Division of All India b) Unique Identification Department of Ancient India c) Unique Identity Division of Ancient India d) Unique Identification Authority of India e) None of these 17. Ms.Christine Lagarde is holding which of the following positions at present? a) Chief of Asian Development Bank b) Chief of International Monetary Fund c) Chancellor of Germany d) Chief of Morgan Stanley e) Chief of World Bank 18. It is mandatory to quote the following identification number on all large value financial transactions. a) PAN number b) Voter ID c) PIN d) Ration Card Number e) Phone Number 19. Which of the following is NOT a Banking or Finance Company? a) Barclay b) Luftansa c) BNP Paribas d) American Express e) HSBC 20. Which of the following is the part of the name of a Public Sector Bank in India? a) Jindal b) Gokhale c) Jaipuria d) Tata e) Dena 21. MMID is a 7 digit number issued by a bank against an account linked to a mobile number. What is the full form of MMID? a) Middle Management in Defence b) Micro and Medium Industries Development c) Money Market in Delhi d) 'Mobile Money Identifier' e) None of the above Key 1) b; 2) d; 3) e; 4) a; 5) d; 6) b; 7) e; 8) b; 9) a; 10) c; 11) a; 12) b; 13) c; 14) c; 15) d; 16) d; 17) b; 18) a; 19 b 20) e; 21) d. -
దేశం యొక్క గొప్పతనం
Directions (Q. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Most of the people who appear most often and most gloriously in the history books are great conquerors and generals and soldiers, whereas the people who really helped civilization forward are often never mentioned at all. We do not know who first set a broken leg or launched a seaworthy boat or calculated the length of the year or manure a field; but we know all about the killers and destroyers. People think a great deal of them, so much so that on all the highest pillars in the great cities of the world you will find the figure of a conqueror or a general or a soldier. And I think most people believe that the greatest countries are those that have beaten in battle the greatest number of other countries and ruled over them as conquerors. It is just possible they are, but they are not the most civilized. Animals fight; so do savages; hence to be good at fighting is to be good in the way in which an animal or a savage is good, but it is not to be civilized. Even being good at getting other people to fight for you and telling them how to do it most efficiently - this, after all, is what conquerors and generals have done - is not being civilized. People fight to settle quarrels. Fighting means killing, and civilized peoples ought to be able to find some way of settling their disputes other than by seeing which side can kill off the greater number of the other side, and then saying that that side which has killed most has won. And not only has won, but, because it has won, has been in the right. For that is what going to war means; it means saying that might is right. That is what the story of mankind has on the whole been like. Even our own age has fought the two greatest wars in history, in which millions of people were killed or mutilated. And while today it is true that people do not fight and kill each other in the streets - while, that is to say, we have got to the stage of keeping the rules and behaving properly to each other in daily life - nations and countries have not learnt to do this yet, and still behave like savages. But we must not expect too much. After all, the race of men has only just started. From the point of view of evolution, human beings are very young children indeed, babies, in fact, of a few months old. Scientists reckon that there has been life of some sort on the earth in the form of jellyfish and that kind of creature for about twelve hundred million years; but there have been men for only one million years, and there have been civilized men for about eight thousand years at the outset. These figures are difficult to grasp; so let us scale them down. Suppose that we reckon the whole past of living creatures on the earth as one hundred years; then the whole past of man works out at about one month, and during that month there have been civilizations for between seven and eight hours. So you see there has been little time to learn in, but there will be oceans of time in which to learn better. Taking man's civilized past at about seven or eight hours, we may estimate his future, that is to say, the whole period between now and when the sun grows too cold to maintain life any longer on the earth, at about one hundred thousand years. Thus mankind is only at the beginning of its civilized life, and as I say, we must not expect too much. The past of man has been on the whole a pretty beastly business, a business of fighting and bullying and gorging and grabbing and hurting. We must not expect even civilized people not to have done these things. All we can ask is that they will sometimes have done something else. 1. According to the author much hype has been created for whom in the history books? 1) Conquerors, generals and soldiers 2) The people who really helped civilization forward 3) Common man 4) Kings and leaders 5) Killers and destroyers 2. People believe that the greatness of a country lies in ___ 1) solidarity and humanism it exhibits 2) reducing poverty and unemployment 3) helping other nations 4) restructuring the strength of a nation 5) winning the battle over other countries 3. Being civilized is ___ 1) showing it by fighting 2) winning more battles 3) fighting to settle quarrels 4) finding other ways rather than fighting 5) making other people fight for you 4. According to the theories of evolution man is ___ 1) just as old as any other creature 2) just as new as no other creature 3) an infant 4) elder than all animals 5) civilized than all 5. How much time is left for the man to learn new things? 1) Three to four years 2) Three to four hours 3) Very little time 4) Eons 5) Century Directions (Q. No. 6 - 8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 6. EVOLUTION 1) Fruition 2) Regression 3) Frustration 4) Devastation 5) Negation 7. RECKON 1) Suppose 2) Surmise 3) Submit 4) Substitute 5) Surrender 8. ESTIMATE 1) Guess 2) Guide 3) Gaze 4) Gawk 5) Gape Directions (Q. No. 9 - 10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. DISPUTE 1) Argument 2) Quarrel 3) Wrangle 4) Agreement 5) Squabble 10. MUTILATE 1) Mar 2) Ruin 3) Deface 4) Vandalize 5) Soothe Directions (Q. No. 11-20): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. To begin, go to an authorized Aadhar enrolment centre anywhere in India with your identity and address proof. Election photo - ID card, ration card, passport, driving license and water/ electricity/ telephone bills for the ____ (11) three months are accepted as proof of identity ____ (12) address. At the enrolment centre, fill ___ (13) your personal details in the form. Your photo, fingerprints and iris scan will also be taken as a part of the enrolment. You can review the ____ (14) you have provided and make corrections during the enrolment. You will be given an ____ (15) slip with a temporary enrolment number and other details entered. ____ (16) on the information provided, your details will be verified centrally. If your application is successful an Aadhaar number ___ (17) generated and mailed to your address. After enrolment, quality checks are done by the enrolment centre supervisors, followed by a correction process, where required, and data-packet consolidation is done. Subsequently, the data is sent ____ (18) the enrolment agency to the UIDAI data centre. The data undergoes various stages of screening and validations to authenticate its source and ensure that ____ (19) duplicate exists. Sample quality checks are done on the demographic and biometric data collected. The operator/ supervisor / introducer/ enrolment agency and registrar information in each packet is also validated. Finally, after passing these checks and validations, the packet goes for re-duplication and the Aadhar card ____ (20) generated. 11. 1) post 2) first 3) last 4) present 5) previous 12. 1) and 2) in 3) with 4) from 5) by 13. 1) down 2) for 3) by 4) under 5) in 14. 1) detailed 2) detail 3) form 4) details 5) dates 15. 1) acknowledgement 2) knowledge 3) receipt 4) counter 5) foil 16. 1) Proved 2) Solved 3) Based 4) Verified 5) Checked 17. 1) will 2) will be 3) will been 4) will bought 5) will by 18. 1) to 2) for 3) far 4) too 5) by 19. 1) now 2) no 3) neither 4) nor 5) know 20. 1) get 2) is got 3) was gotten 4) gets 5) getting Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 21. The contractor hoped to finish (1)/ the work last month (2)/ but in fact (3)/ he could not. (4) No error. (5) 22. Neither the height (1)/ nor the width (2)/ of the boxes (3)/ were right. (4)/ No error. (5) 23. We listened to only songs (1)/ on one side (2)/ of the cassette (3)/ you gave us. (4) / No error. (5) 24. All the family members (1)/ were immensely happy (2)/ to hear the news of (3)/ Shyamala's passing in the final exam. (4)/ No error. (5) 25. I am not (1)/ tired (2)/ with writing (3)/ letters to him. (4)/ No error. (5) Key: 1) 1; 2) 5; 3) 4; 4) 3; 5) 4; 6) 1; 7) 2; 8) 1; 9) 4; 10) 5; 11) 3; 12) 1; 13) 5; 14) 4; 15) 1; 16) 3; 17) 2; 18) 5; 19) 2; 20) 4; 21) 1; 22) 4; 23) 1; 24) 4; 25) 3. -
'గ్రేస్ ఆఫ్ మనీ' కోడెడ్ యాజ్
CODING - DECODING 1. In a certain code SPORADIC is written as QNORDJEB. How is TROUBLES written in that code? 1) SQTNTFMC 2) TNQSRDKA 3) TNQSTFMC 4) TFQSCMFT 5) None of these 2. If 'White' is called 'Red', 'Red' is called 'Blue', 'Blue' is called 'Yellow', 'Yellow' is called 'Black', 'Black' is called 'Gre- en' and 'Green' is called 'Grey', then what is the colour of clear Sky? 1) Red 2) Blue 3) Yellow 4) Grey 5) None 3. In a certain code language, 'TONIC' is coded as 'CINOT' and 'SCALE' is coded as 'ACELS'. In the same code language, 'PLANK' will coded as 1) KNALP 2) AKNLP 3) AKLNP 4) AKPNL 5) Cannot be determined 4. In a certain language 'GUST' is coded as '@7$2', 'SNIP' is coded as '957#' and 'GAPE' is coded as 'b$35'. How will 'SING' be coded in the same code? 1) 9$7# 2) 59$# 3) 9b7$ 4) 7$59 5) $27# Directions (Q.5-8): In a certain code, 'ze lo ka gi' is a code for 'must save some money', 'fe ka so ni' is a code for 'he made good money', 'ni lo da so' is a code for 'he must be good' and 'we so ze da', is a code for 'be good save grace'. 5. Which of the following is the code for 'must'? 1) so 2) da 3) lo 4) ni 5) Can't be determined 6. What does the code 'ze' stand for? 1) Some 2) Must 3) be 4) Grace 5) Save 7. Which of the following is the code for 'good'? 1) so 2) we 3) ze 4) lo 5) fe 8. 'Grace of money' may be coded as? 1) ka da fe 2) we ka so 3) ja da we 4) ka we yo 5) ja ka ze Directions (Q.9-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: The consonants of English alphabet have been coded by using digits 1 to 8 and the vowels have been coded by using different symbols. Letters:G B K H Z M F R V C S D Q X J N T L W Y P Digit: 5 4 1 3 2 8 7 If any vowel is neither in the beginning nor in last, it is coded as '6'. If any vowel is at the beginning or in the last, it is coded as '9'. However, if the same vowel is placed at both beginning and in the last, it is coded as '$' at both the places. How the following letter-groups will be coded? 9. PKDEJHI 1) 712653$ 2) 7129539 3) 7126539 4) 712$53$ 5) None of these 10. AFDQENI 1) 9728649 2) $72864$ 3) 9728949 4) 6728949 5) None of these 11. OPTIONAL 1) $7166463 2) $7199493 3) 67199493 4) 97166463 5) None of these 12. EGTARLQE 1) 95165389 2) 65195386 3) $519538$ 4) $51$538$ 5) None of these 13. ENIANGE 1) $4$$45$ 2) 9466459 3) $46645$ 4) 6499456 5) None of these Directions (Q.14-18): The English alphabet is categorized into 5 groups, each starting with a vowel and encompassing the immediately following consonants in the group. Thus, the first group would have letters A, B, C and D; the second E, F, G and H; and so on. These groups are assigned values as 10 for the first, 20 for the second, and so on, up to 50 for the last. Every letter in a particular group will have the same value of the group when used to form words. The value of each letter should add up to compute the value of the word. If the word has letters only from the same group, the value of the word would be the value of the letter multiplied by the number of letters in the word. However, if the letters in a word are from different groups, the value of the letters in a word are from different groups, the value of the first letter of the word and any other letter of that group will be the same as that of its group, but that of the subsequent letter will be 'double' as much as the value of its group. For example: The value of 'CAB' WILL BE 30 (I. E., M 10 + 10 + 10) as all the three letters are from the first group, each one having a value of 10. The value of 'BUS' will be 10 + (50*2) + (40*2) = 190 The value of 'JUNK' will be 30 + (50*2) + 30 + 30 = 190. Now, find out the value of each word in the following questions. 14. BEG 1) 50 2) 90 3) 60 4) 70 5) None of these 15. QUEUE 1) 140 2) 280 3) 320 4) 360 5) None of these 16. SPOTS 1) 200 2) 360 3) 380 4) 250 5) None of these 17. HIGH 1) 40 2) 60 3) 70 4) 80 5) None of these 18. SHOT 1) 70 2) 120 3) 130 4) 140 5) None of these -
ఒక తీవ్రమైన ప్రభావం కనిపిస్తుంది ..?
Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Many factors influence whether you notice a pain at all and if you do, how much it hurts. Since the pain message is received and interpreted by the brain, competing messages may block it or other factors may enhance the intensity of the sensation. The pain threshold-the point at which a person reports-can be raised as much as 40% by hypnosis or by loud noise or other distractions. Fully a third or pains can be relieved by a placebo, or sugar pill, if the patient believes it to be an active pain-killing drug. Recent studies suggest that placebos work by trig-gering the release of the body's own morphine endorphins. That a pain can be dissipated by a placebo does not mean that it was feigned. A placebo is anything that seems to be a "real" medical treatment - but isn't. It could be a pill, a shot, or some other type of "fake" treatment. What all placebos have in common is that they do not contain an active sub-stance meant to affect health. Some-times a person can have a response to a placebo. The response can be positive or negative. For instance, the person's symptoms may improve. Or the person may have what appears to be a side effect from the treatment. These responses are known as the "placebo effect." Research on the placebo effect has focused on the relationship of mind and body. One of the most common theories is that the placebo effect is due to a person's expectations. If a person expects a pill to do something, then it's possible that the body's own chemistry can cause effects similar to what a medication might have caused. For instance, in one study, people were given a placebo and told it was a stimulant. After taking the pill, their pulse rate sped up, their blood pressure increased and their reaction speeds improved. When people were given the same pill and told it was to help them get to sleep, they experienced the opposite effects. Experts also say that there is a relationship between how strongly a person expects to have results and whether or not results occur. The stronger the feeling, the more likely it is that a person will experience positive effects. There may be a profound effect due to the interaction between a patient and health care provider. 1. A pain may be felt lightly or intensely by a person according to 1) his brain capacity 2) how much it hurts 3) the intensity of other messages to the brain 4) the nature of the person and his attitude to pain 5) the nature of taking medicines 2. Loud noise is resorted to in red-ucing pain on the principle that 1) it can shock a person out of consciousness 2) it neutralizes the cause of the pain 3) the intensity of the pain sensation can be enhanced 4) the brain can be distracted from noticing the pain message. 5) It enhances the cause of pain 3. According to the passage 1) A placebo helps a doctor to detect whether a patient really has pain 2) Placebos help in relieving pain 3) Placebos immunize the body against pain 4) Doctors prescribe placebos in order to deceive their patients 5) None of these 4. Research on the placebo effect has focused on the study of 1) Pills that are given to patients 2) What doctors suggest the patients 3) The effect of this on mind and body 4) How the patient studies the case 5) Whether doctors can learn anything from this 5. What will have an intense effect on the patients? 1) The use of a drug 2) The use of pills or medicines which are related to the disease 3) Following their own will 4) Having an interaction with the health care provider 5) Feeling that it is not good Directions (Q. 06-08): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 6. Threshold 1) Verge 2) Wedge 3) Wage 4) Gaze 5) Gauge 7. Distractions 1) Dimensions 2) Deputation 3) Diversions 4) Demands 5) Orders 8. Dissipated 1) Upright 2) Degenerate 3) Dissociate 4) Compact 5) Assemble Directions (Q. 9-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. Expectations 1) Follow 2) Promise 3) Profound 4) Despair 5) Lighten 10. Profound 1) Deep 2) Negative 3) Positive 4) Reflective 5) Superficial Directions: (Q. 11-15): Re-arrange the following six sentences in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph than answer the questions given below them which are labeled as A, B, C, D, E and F to produce the correct sentence. A. Once after a philosopher had given a lecture, a woman approached him. B. The feeling that the world had to be on solid ground persisted to modern times. C. Some early maps showed the earth to be resting on the backs of giant elephants. D. The earth, she told him, rested on the back of a giant turtle. E. The woman shouted, "It's no use! It's turtles all the way down!" F. The philosopher asked her what the turtle stood on and she said, "a bigger turtle". The philosopher asked her the next logical question. 11. What is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F 12. What is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F 13. What is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F 14. What is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F 15. What is the LAST sentence after rearrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) F Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 16. Raghu has not and can never be in the good books of his emp-loyer because he lacks sincerity. 1) has not and cannot be 2) has not and can never been 3) has not been and can never be 4) has not been can never been 5) No improvement 17. The logic of the Berlin Wall already had been undermined, but when the news came through that the wall itself had been opened I jumped into a car. 1) had been undermined already 2) had been already been undetermined 3) had been already undermined 4) had already been undetermined 5) No improvement 18. Other countries have wiped out this practice ten years ago. 1) wiped out 2) wipes out 3) did wipe 4) has wiped 5) No improvement 19. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to think why they do not. 1) that all the Indian children 2) if all the children of India 3) all Indian children 4) Indian all children 5) No improvement 20. If stood alone in defence of truth, and the whole world is banded against me and against truth, I would fight them all. 1) will be banded 2) were banded 3) banded 4) will band 5) No improvement Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 21. The wards of the hostel are (1)/ allowed to do (2)/ anything except to go out (3)/ on their own at night. (4)/ No error (5) 22. The best way to explore Egypt (1)/ is to take a trip down Nile, (2)/ the river that runs like a thread (3)/ throughout Egyptian history. (4)/ No error (5) 23. The hawkers have been carrying (1)/ out their business on the main (2)/ pavement since three years (3)/ but no one has ever objected. (4)/ No error (5) 24. Hardly I have finished (1)/ writing when my brother (2)/ snatched the fountain (3)/ pen from my hand. (4)/ No error (5) 25. India, which makes up (1)/ sixteen percent of the global population, (2)/ carries twenty percent (3)/ of their disease burden. (4)/ No error (5) -
నియంత్రణ యూనిట్ యొక్క కర్తవ్యం ఏమిటి?
1. We cannot delete the ____ icon, but we can made it invisible. a) Recycle b) My Computer c) Internet explorer d) All the above e) None of the above 2. What is the meaning of 'Hibernate' in Windows XP/ Windows 7? a) Restart the computers in safe mode b) Restart the computers in normal mode c) Shutdown the computer terminating all the running applications d) Shutdown the computer without closing the running applications e) Restart the computers all the running applications 3. The RF communication can be broadly classified in how many types? a) Three b) Four c) Two d) Six e) Ten 4. _____ is sometimes said to be object oriented, because the only way to manipulate kernel objects is by invoking methods on their handles. a) Windows NT b) Windows XP c) Windows VISTA d) Windows 95/98 e) Windows 7 5. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen? a) Tab stop box b) Left Indent c) Right Indent d) Center Indent e) All of them are available on ruler 6. In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of __ a) session layer b) network layer c) transport layer d) data link layer e) None of the above 7. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory? a) Best case b) Worst case c) Average case d) Null case e) All of the above 8. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language is called a/ an a) Interpreter b) Simulator c) Compiler d) Commander e) Proposer 9. Which of the following formulas will Excel not be able to calculate? a) =SUM(Sales)-A3 b) =SUM(A1:A5)*.5 c) =SUM(A1:A5)/(10-10) d) =SUM(A1:A5)-10 e) = SUM(A1:A5)-A5 10. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which digital information can be stored? a) Customer relationship management systems cards b) E-government identity cards c) FEDI cards d) Smart cards e) Aadhar card 11. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol? a) Alt+Ctrl+C b) Alt + C c) Ctrl + C d) Ctrl + Shift + C e) Ctrl + Shift + D 12. During software development which factor is most crucial? a) People b) Process c) Product d) Project e) Purpose 13. How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard? a) Two b) Three c) Seven d) Six e) eight 14. The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called ___ a) Bipolar b) NRZ c) Manchester d) Binary e) Bit 15. The idea of MFC document architecture was created by: a) Microsoft b) Oracle c) Xerox d) IBM e) Java 16. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? a) Pixel b) Reverse video c) Touch screen d) Cursor e) Image 17. What kind of architecture does mobile computing deploy? a) Two layered b) Three layered c) Four layered d) Five layered e) Six layered 18. A word processor would most likely be used to do ___ a) Keep an account of money spent b) Do a computer search in media center c) Maintain an inventory d) Type a biography e) All the above 19. SDLC stands for? a) Software Design Life Cycle b) Software Development Life Cycle c) System Design Life Cycle d) System Development Life Cycle e) None of these 20. When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored in/ on the ___ a) stack pointer b) accumulator c) program counter d) stack e) pointer 21. What component of .NET includes services used to support web services? a) Platform b) Framework c) Visual Studio d) System e) Mather board 22. Which of the following is not one of the four primary focuses of e-government? a) G2G b) G2B c) IG2B d) IG2G e) IG2I 23. ____is not a category of EPS. a) E banking b) Direct payments c) Retailing payments d) Cash on delivery e) All of these 24. One of the distinguished features of super-computer over other category of computer is ____ a) parallel processing b) highest accuracy level c) more speed d) more capacity e) less speed 25. Which class is used to control the data being used by application? a) Document class b) View class c) Frame class d) Application class e) Software class 26. What is the control unit's function in the CPU? a) Transfers data to primary storage b) Stores program instruction c) Performs logic operations d) Decodes program instruction e) Performs logic storage 27. Which of the following is the most common method for online payment? a) Card based system b) Cheque based system c) e cash system d) All the above e) None of the above 28. Which of the following is not a product matrix? a) Size b) Reliability c) Productivity d) Functionality e) Quality 29. Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate in individual device? a) Computer bus b) Telephone lines c) Voice and mode d) Lease lines e) Only voice 30. The most common addressing techniques employed by a CPU is ___ a) Immediate b) Direct c) Indirect d) Register e) All of the above 31. The key F12 opens a: a) Save As dialog box b) Open dialog box c) Save dialog box d) Close dialog box e) Edit dialog box 32. Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal? a) VDR b) RTS c) CTS d) DSR e) DLR 33. The indirect change of the values of a variable in one module by another module is called ___ a) internal change b) inter-module change c) side effect d) side-module update e) internal effect 34. Operating system is also known as: a) Database b) System software c) Hardware d) Printer e) Operating system 35. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer jargon for it? a) Leech b) Squid c) Slug d) Glitch e) Bug 36. What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8? a) It activates extended selection b) It activates the rectangular selection c) It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is d) All of the above e) None of the above 37. Which of the following is the latest version of Excel? a) Excel 2000 b) Excel 2002 c) Excel ME d) Excel 7 e) Excel XP 38. Which of the following statement is correct? a) Terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler b) Receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler c) Transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler d) Control section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler e) None of the above 39. Human beings are referred to as Homo sapiens, which device is called Silico Sapiens? a) Monitor b) Hardware c) Robot d) Computer e) Mouse 40. ____ share characteristics with both hardware and software. a) Operating system b) Software c) Data d) File e) None 41. A worksheet range is a ___ a) command used for data modeling b) range of values such as from 23 to 234 c) group of cells d) group of worksheets e) group of rows -
అంత్యోదయ దివస్ జరుపుకుంటాము?
1. Who has been authorized to act as the Central Vigilance Commissioner until a regular appointment is made? 1) Rajiv 2) JM Garg 3) Arvind Ranjan 4) Dilip Trivedi 5) None of these 2. The Reserve Bank of India in its fourth bi-monthly monetary policy on September 30, 2014 kept the repo rate unchanged at? 1) 9% 2) 8% 3) 9.5% 4) 8.5% 5) 7% 3. Martin Perl of USA died on September 30, 2014. He won the Nobel Prize in which of the following subjects in 1995? 1) Physics 2) Chemistry 3) Medicine 4) Literature 5) Economics 4. Mary Kom became the first Indian woman boxer to clinch Asian Games Gold on October 1, 2014. Whom did she defeat in the final of the flyweight section? 1) Le Thi Bang 2) Jang Un-Hui 3) Yin Junhua 4) Zhaina Shekerbekova 5) None of these 5. The government has decided to observe which of the following days as "Antyodaya Diwas" every year to mark the birth anniversary of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya? 1) September 30 2) September 27 3) September 28 4) September 29 5) September 25 6. Jens Stoltenberg became the 13th Secretary General of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) on October 1, 2014. He is the former Prime Minister of which of the following European countries? 1) Finland 2) Denmark 3) Norway 4) Austria 5) Bulgaria 7. India defeated which of the following teams in the final to clinch the men's hockey gold at the Asian Games in Incheon on October 2, 2014? 1) South Korea 2) Malaysia 3) Japan 4) Pakistan 5) Iran 8. Five authors of Indian origin bagged the Pulitzer Prize so far. Who among the following is not one of them? 1) Gobind Behari Lal 2) Jhumpa Lahiri 3) Geeta Anand 4) Siddartha Mukherjee 5) Arundhati Roy 9. Taavi Roivas succeeded Andrus Ansip as the Prime Minister of which of the following countries on March 26, 2014? 1) Slovenia 2) Slovakia 3) Estonia 4) Latvia 5) Norway 10. Sunil Sabharwal, an Indian- American, has been appointed as the US Alternate Executive Director at the? 1) World Bank 2) WTO 3) NATO 4) IMF 5) None of these 11. Karim Massimov assumed office as the Prime Minister of which of the following countries on April 2, 2014? 1) Kazakhstan 2) Kyrgyzstan 3) Tajikistan 4) Uzbekistan 5) None of these 12. Ramesh Agarwal won which of the following Prizes/ Awards in 2014? 1) Alex Lee Award 2) Abel Prize 3) Goldman Environmental Prize 4) Pritzker Prize 5) None of these 13. 61st National Film Awards winners are given below. Identify the mismatched pair? 1) Best Feature Film - Ship of Theseus 2) Best Actress - Geetanjali Thapa 3) Best Actor - Raj Kumar & Suraj Venjaramoodu 4) Best Director - Hansal Mehta 5) Best Children's Film - Chillar Party 14. The National Film Awards are presented usually on? 1) May 3 2) April 16 3) May 13 4) April 30 5) May 30 15. Which of the following is the capital of Brazil? 1) Sao Paulo 2) Rio de Janeiro 3) Belo Horizonte 4) Brasilia 5) Recife 16. Which of the following cities is not a capital of a country? 1) Quito 2) Santiago 3) Bogotá 4) Buenos Aires 5) Salvador 17. What is the full form of FCCB? 1) Foreign Convertible Credit Bond 2) Future Credit and Currency Bureau 3) Foreign Currency Convertible Bond 4) Financial Credit and Currency Bureau 5) None of these 18. Who is the first winner of the prestigious Jnanpith Award? 1) K.V. Puttappa 2) Tarasankar Bandhopadhyaya 3) G. Shankara Kurup 4) Mahadevi Verma 5) Viswanatha Satyanarayana 19. What is the highest peacetime gallantry award in India? 1) Param Vir Chakra 2) Maha Vir Chakra 3) Kirti Chakra 4) Ashok Chakra 5) Shourya Chakra 20. General elections were held from April 7 to May 12, 2014 to constitute? 1) 14th Lok Sabha 2) 15th Lok Sabha 3) 16th Lok Sabha 4) 17th Lok Sabha 5) 18th Lok Sabha 21. Which of the following statements is correct? 1) RM Lodha is the current Chief Justice of India 2) Law Day is observed on May 26 3) RBI was established in 1934 4) Malala Yousafzai belongs to Afghanistan 5) Arundhati Bhattacharya is the first woman chief of India's largest bank 22. The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) was formed in? 1) 1955 2) 1960 3) 1956 4) 1958 5) 1964 23. Who was the first Attorney Gen-eral of India from 1950 to 1963? 1) M.C. Setalvad 2) C.K. Daphtary 3) Niren De 4) L.N. Sinha 5) K. Parasaran 24. The interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized banks is fixed by? 1) Ministry of Finance 2) Finance Commission 3) Indian Banks' Association 4) Reserve Bank of India 5) None of these 25. Till date how many people have been awarded the Bharat Ratna? 1) 41 2) 42 3) 43 4) 44 5) 45 26. Which of the following is not matched correctly? Agency Headquarters 1) International Civil Aviation Organization - Montreal 2) World Meteorological Organization - Geneva 3) United Nations Industrial Development Organization - Vienna 4) International Fund for Agricultural Development - Rome 5) International Telecommunication Union - Berne 27. The First Five Year Plan of India was based on? 1) PC Mahalanobis Model 2) Harrod-Domar Model 3) Nehru Model 4) Gadgil Model 5) John Miller Model 28. Identify the mismatched pair. 1) Chief Election Commissioner - V.S. Sampath 2) 14th Finance Commission Chairman - Y.V. Reddy 3) Seventh Pay Commission Chairman - A.K. Mathur 4) 20th Law Commission Chairman - Ajit Prakash Shah 5) National Security Advisor - Shiv Shankar Menon 29. Which of the following was the first newspaper in India, started in 1780? 1) Bombay Herald 2) Bombay Courier 3) Bengal Gazette 4) Samachar Darpan 5) Bombay Samachar 30. Prime Lending Rate (PLR) is now replaced by? 1) Repo rate 2) Reverse repo rate 3) Bank rate 4) Base rate 5) Exchange rate 31. Bandhavgarh National Park is located in which of the following States? 1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Odisha 4) Karnataka 5) Goa 32. Who won the 2014 Pulitzer Prize for his collection of poems "3 Sections"? 1) Pankaj Mishra 2) Vijay Seshadri 3) Subodh Sarkar 4) C.N. Ramachandran 5) None of these 33. Who is the author of the book "Crusader or Conspirator? Coalgate and Other Stories"? 1) Daman Singh 2) Gurusharan Singh 3) P.C. Parakh 4) Sanjay Baru 5) Shashi Tharoor 34. Who is known as the Father of Modern Genetics? 1) Charles Darwin 2) Hugo de Vries 3) Carl Correns 4) Gregor Mendel 5) Jean Baptiste Lamarck 35. The United Nations Organization designated which of the following years as the International Women's Year (IWY)? 1) 1974 2) 1976 3) 1977 4) 1980 5) 1975 36. Which of the following satellites was launched by the ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV C-24, on April 4, 2014? 1) GSAT-14 2) GSAT-12 3) RISAT-I 4) IRNSS-IB 5) INSAT-3D 37. The Reserve Bank of India recently issued guidelines allowing minors over 10 years of age to operate bank accounts independently with a view to? 1) Promoting financial inclusion 2) Increasing low-cost deposits of banks 3) Improving CASA percentage of banks 4) Mobilizing Savings Bank Deposits of banks 5) Putting ATMs and other infra-structure to optimum use 38. Kepler-78b is the name of? 1) An American nuclear missile 2) A Russian armored vehicle 3) A precision measuring instrument 4) A Spanish sea vessel 5) An earth sized planet far beyond our solar system 39. The third Summit of BIMSTEC was held in March 2014 in? 1) Bangkok 2) New Delhi 3) Thimphu 4) Nay Pyi Taw 5) Colombo 40. The Brahmaputra River in Arunachal Pradesh is known as? 1) Tons 2) Sindh 3) Tamsa 4) Hindon 5) Siang KEY 1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4 5) 5 6) 3 7) 4 8) 5 9) 3 10) 4 11) 1 12) 3 13) 5 14) 1 15) 4 16) 5 17) 3 18) 3 19) 4 20) 3 21) 5 22) 4 23) 1 24) 5 25) 3 26) 5 27) 2 28) 5 29) 3 30) 4 31) 1 32) 2 33) 3 34) 4 35) 5 36) 4 37) 1 38) 5 39) 4 40) 5 -
పథకం గానే మానేశారు ..
Directions (Q. 1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case and mark your answer. Though most of us know him _____ (1) for his inventions, Thomas Alva Edison was first and _____ (2) a telegraph operator. Born humbly in Ohio, U.S.in 1847, he was the seventh _____ (3) last child of Samuel Ogden Edison. At the _____ (4) age of nineteen he moved to Kentucky, where he worked in night shifts. He was _____ (5) with a lead-acid battery when he spilled Sulfuric acid onto the floor it ran between the floorboards and onto his boss's desk below. The next morning Edison was ____ (6). He was ___ (7) about reading and experimenting. One of his mentors during those early years was a fellow telegrapher and inventor named Franklin Leonard Pope, who allowed the ____(8) youth to live and work in the basement of his home. The invention that first gained him notice was the phonograph in 1877. This ___ (9) was so unexpected by the public at large as to appear almost ___ (10). 1. (1) except (2) best (3) hardly (4) greatly (5) sometimes 2. (1) previous (2) only (3) foremost (4) above (5) lastly 3. (1) between (2) before (3) with (4) and (5) of 4. (1) elder (2) early (3) delicate (4) old (5) tough 5. (1) set (2) establish (3) working (4) shared (5) purchase 6. (1) fired (2) send (3) showed (4) followed (5) take 7. (1) fame (2) character (3) passionate (4) defeat (5) poor 8. (1) poverty (2) worry (3) problem (4) conflict (5) impoverished 9. (1) accomplishment (2) well (3) fine (4) leading (5) excellent 10. (1) partly (2) wisely (3) rarely (4) magical (5) almost Directions (Q. 11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. The joy of discovery is a very real incentive to research, despite the rareness of its realization. It is on error to suppose that the scientist is unemotional, or could succeed if he were. The error has arisen through a misconception. The absolute necessity that a scientist's findings shall not be changed from objective truth in response to emotional urges of any kind does not result in his becoming a particularly unemotional person: whether a discoverer or anyone else is pleased with a discovery has no effect on its validity. 'I have been working like a madman at Drosera' wrote Darwin to Sir J.D. Hooker in reference to his study of insectivorous plants and a few days later, to the geologist, Lyell 'at the present moment I care more about Drosera that the origin of all the species in the world---- I am frightened and astounded at my results'. Kropotkin once wrote, 'There are not many joys in human life equal to the joy of the sudden birth of a generalization ---He who has once in this life experienced this joy of scientific creation will never forget it.' 11. The author of the passage counters the misconception that a scientist is unemotional by pointing out that 1) the objectivity of a scientist cannot make emotional compromises 2) even such a great scientist as Darwin cared so much for Drosera 3) he has capacity to react to emotional appeals made by others 4) he considers scientific discovery equal to the joy of creation 5) he has no capacity to react to emotional appeals made by others 12. In this passage the author tells us that scientific research leads one to 1) rare discoveries 2) success, sometimes 3) sure success 4) finding the objective truth 5) funding rarity 13. Darwin's letter to Lyell reveals to us that he 1) attached greater importance to his discovery of insectivorous pants than to his discovery of the origin of the species 2) used to get deeply involved in whatever research, big or small, he had on hand at a given point of time 3) was rather uncertain about his success in his research on insectivorous plants 4) was worried that insectivorous plants would destroy all species of insects 5) was sure of success 14. The findings of scientific researchers 1) are universally welcome 2) result in robbing the researcher of all emotions 3) are objective in nature 4) have universal validity 5) no relation to present 15. Kropotkin says about the unforgettable experience 1) joy of scientific creation 2) remember the experience 3) sorrows of human life 4) generalized observations 5) astounding facts Directions (Q. 16-18): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 16. ASTOUNDED 1) amazed 2) scared 3) rescued 4) worked 5) furnished 17. JOY 1) ecstasy 2) wander 3) murmur 4) jump 5) leap 18. INCENTIVE 1) enticement 2) enjoyment 3) overwhelm 4) spurious 5) engulf Directions (Q. 19-20): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 19. OBJECTIVE 1) purpose 2) subjective 3) change 4) bonus 5) increment 20. FRIGHTENED 1) ghastly 2) beastly 3) horrified 4) courageous 5) happy Directions (Q. 21-25): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 21. Scientists fear that many birds ----- heading towards a unisex existence that would ----- to extinction. 1) is… make 2) are.. making 3) is… moving 4) are…lead 5) were…leading 22. Using ------ from government survey, he found ------ support for his line of reasoning. 1) data… strong 2) date…much 3) doubt…many 4) dates…very 5) date…meek 23. Science consists of ------, Art consists of ------. 1) naming…pleading 2) knowing…doing 3) doing... pleasing 4) creation…erosion 5) evolution…inspection 24. Technology is important but what is of great ---------- is the capturing of tacit knowledge. 1) important 2) import 3) improvement 4) importance 5) importantly 25. The ------ of the hour is to evolve measures to tackle the issue. 1) time 2) moment 3) need 4) pride 5) speed Directions (Q. 26-30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 26. There is a misconception (1)/that freedom means(2)/to be doing (3)/your own thing.(4)/No error (5) 27. Shakespeare was (1)/ better than any poet(2)/of his days (3)/ acc-ording to critics. (4)/ No error (5) 28. I ordered for a cup of tea (1)/ but the bearer (2)/brought it only (3)/ at the end of the tea-session. (4)/ No error (5) 29. Lack of honesty(1)/ is sometimes labeled as(2)/tact public relations (3)/or politics. (4)/ No error (5) 30. in the aftermath of the September 11th (1)/ the American president's speech was (2)/ broadcasted and televised (3)/ all over the world. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (Q. 31-35): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 31. The minister hit out at his critics and categorically denied his involvement in the scam. 1) hit up 2) hit back 3) hit upon 4) hit around 5) no correction 32. He can strike out a friendship even with complete strangers. 1) strike up 2) strike at 3) strike on 4) strike back 5) no correction 33. I prefer listening to soft music to help me wind over after a stressful day. 1) wind up 2) wind down 3) wind off 4) wind of 5) no correction 34. The scheme has fallen out due to paucity of funds. 1) fallen through 2) fallen over 3) fallen apart 4) fallen back 5) no correction 35. Over the years several extremists laid up their arms and joined the mainstream. 1) laid out 2) laid upon 3) laid by 4) laid down 5) no correction Key 1) 2; 2) 3; 3) 4; 4) 3; 5) 3; 6) 1; 7) 3; 8) 5; 9) 1; 10) 4; 11) 1; 12) 4; 13) 1; 14) 3; 15) 1; 16) 1; 17) 1; 18) 1; 19) 2; 20) 4; 21) 4; 22) 1; 23) 2; 24) 4; 25) 3; 26) 3; 27) 2; 28) 1; 29) 2; 30) 3; 31) 2; 32) 1; 33) 2; 34) 1; 35) 4. -
ఏ చిహ్నాలు అమర్చాలి ..?
CODED INEQUALITIES Directions (Q 1-5): In the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statement(s) is/are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 1. Statements: K < N = O, P > W < K Conclusions: I. P > N II. O > W Sol: We can't compare P and N. Hence, conclusion I is not true. W < K < N = O. Hence, W < O. So, conclusion II is true. Ans: 2 2. Statements: C = P, G < C, N > G Conclusions: I. N > C II. P = N Sol: N > G < C = P. So, we can't compare N and C. Conclusion I is not true. Conclusion II is also not true. Ans: 4 3. Statements: I > N ³ T, E < R = T Conclusions: I. I > R II. E £ N Sol: I > N ³ T = R > E. conclusion I is true. Conclusion II is not true. Ans: 1 4. Statements: V < Q = A. W = Z > P Conclusions: I. Q ³ Z II. V < P Sol: There is no relationship between Q and Z as well as between V and P. Hence, both the conclusion don't follow. Ans: 4 5. Statements: Z ³ X < Y > M > N Conclusions: I. N < Y II. Z ³ M Sol: Conclusion I is true where as conclusion II is not true. Ans: 1 Directions (Q 6-10): In the following questions, the symbols $, @, %, © And # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below: 'P # Q' means 'P' is neither greater than nor equal to 'Q'. 'P © Q' means 'P' is neither equal to nor smaller then 'Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P' is neither smaller than nor greater then 'Q'. 'P $ Q' means 'P' is not smaller then 'Q'. 'P @ Q' means 'P' is not greater than 'Q'. In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 6. Statements: B # E, C © Q, Q @ E Conclusions: I. C © B II. B © Q Sol: C > Q £ E > B We can't compare C and B. Hence, conclusion I is not true. Similarly, we can't compare B and Q. Hence, conclusion II is not true. Ans: 4 7. Statements: D @ F, S # G, G $ D Conclusions: I. S # D II. F $ G Sol: S < G ³ D £ F. We can't compare S and D. Hence, conclusion I is not true. Same is the case with F and G. Hence, conclusion II is not true. Ans: 4 8. Statements: N © R, P @ W, R % P Conclusions: I. W $ N II. N © W Sol: N > R = P £ W. Both conclusions I and II form a complementary pair. Hence, Either I or II follows. Ans: 3 9. Statements: C @ D, D © M, A @ M Conclusions: I. M # C II. D © A Sol: A £ M < D ³ C As we can't compare M and C, conclusion I is not true. A < D. Hence, conclusion II is true. Ans: 2 10. Statements: G $ T, T % V, Q © V Conclusions: I. Q © T II. V @ G Sol: Q > V = T £ G Q > T. Hence, conclusion I is true. V £ G. Hence, conclusion II is also true. Ans: 5 Directions (Q. 11-15): In the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statement(s) is/are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 11. Statements: C £ B < X = Y > Z, P < B < R Conclusions: I. C < R II. R < Y Sol: C £ B < R. Hence, C < R. Conclusion I is tr- ue. R and Y cannot be compared. Hence, conclusion II is not true. Ans: 1 12. Statements: V > W = X ³ Z, W < P, X > Q Conclusions: I. Q < V II. P > Z Sol: V > W = X > Q. V > Q. Hence, conclusion I is true. P > W = X ³ Z. Hence, P > Z. So, Conclusion II is also true. Ans: 5 13. Statements: R = X > M ³ P, X £ K < S Conclusions: I. R < S II. K > P Sol: R = X £ K < S. Hence, conclusion I is true. K ³ X > M ³ P. Hence, conclusion II is also true. Ans: 5 14. Statements: S ³ P > L, P = N < K, S < Z Conclusions: I. Z = K II. N £ S Sol: Z > S ³ P = N < K. Hence, conclusion I is not true. S ³ P = N. Hence, S ³ N. So, conclusion II is true. Ans: 2 15. Statements: S > K, M £ T £ R, K < M Conclusions: I. R > S II. K > T Sol: R ³ T ³ M > K < S. Hence, R and S cannot be compared. Conclusion I is not true. T ³ M > K. Hence, T > K. So, conclusion II is not true. Ans: 4 Direction (Q. 16 - 20): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions: 16. Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression A ³ B > C = D ³ E > F is definitely true? 1) A ³ D 2) B ³ D 3) F > A 4) C > F 5) A ³ E Sol: C = D ³ E > F Hence, C > F. Ans: 4 17. Which of the symbols should be placed in the blank space from left to right respectively to complete the expression in such a manner that A > B, C > A and D> F are definitely true? D £ A_X, D_B, C = X, F_B 1) <, >, < 2) >, >, < 3) =, <, > 4) =, <, < 5) >, =, < Sol: D £ A < X, D > B, C = X, F < B. For better understanding the above expression can be arranged in the following way. F < B < D £ A < X = C Ans: 1 18. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression to make the expression J > N and K ³ N definitely true? J ? K ³ L ? M ? N < O 1) <, >, = 2) >, ³, = 3) >, £, ³ 4) >, =, £ 5) None of these Sol: J > K ³ L ³ M = N Ans: 2 19. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively from left to right to complete the given expression in such a manner that the expression T > W is definitely false and the expressions Z ³ T and Y ³ V are definitely true? Z_ Y _ X ³ W = V_T 1) ³, ³, ³ 2) £, £, ³ 3) >, ³, > 4) ³, =, < 5) None of these Sol: Z ³ Y ³ X ³ W = V ³ T Ans: 1 20. In which of the following expressions is 'P>Q' not definitely true? 1) Q > C £ R < P 2) Q £ R < S £ P 3) P > S = T ³ Q 4) P > S = T ³ Q 5) None of these Sol: Q and P cannot be compared. In all the remaining options P > Q. Ans: 1 Directions (Q. 21 - 25): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I follows. 2) If only conclusion II follows. 3) If either conclusion I or II follows. 4) If neither conclusion nor II follows. 5) If both conclusion I and II follow. 21. Statements: Z = A ³ C < M, R > Z Conclusions: I. R > C II. A < M Sol: R > Z = A ³ C Hence, R > C. So, conclusion I is true. A and M cannot be compared. So, conclusion II is not true. Ans: 1 22. Statements: N > A ³ C, P = N, P £ L Conclusions: I. N > C II. L > A Sol: N > A ³ C Hence, N > C. Conclusion I is true. L ³ P = N > A Hence, L > A. Conclusion II is also true. Ans: 5 23. Statements: S £ K < M > W ³ Z Conclusions: I. W < K II. Z = S Sol: W and K cannot be compared. Similarly Z and S cannot be compared. Ans: 4 24. Statements: S £ L < R, S ³ N, P = N Conclusions: I. P = S II. R < N Sol: S ³ N = P Hence, conclusion I is not true. R > L ³ S ³ N Hence, conclusion II is not true. Ans: 4 25. Statements: L > M ³ P £ S, Q < P, M < K Conclusions: I. K = L II. M ³ Q Sol: L > M < K Hence, L and K cannot be compared. M ³ P > Q M > Q. Hence, Conclusion II is not true Ans: 4 -
సత్వరమార్గం కీ ఏమిటి?
1. India's largest wide area network is: a) INDONET b) NICNET c) INET d) SWIFT e) Beam 2. A computer system consists of several devices like CPU, monitor, mouse etc. together they are called: a) computer peripherals b) computer components c) computer bits d) computer equipments e) none of the above 3. Number of devices supported by LAN can be maximum of: a) 7 b) 12 c) 100 d) 1000 e) 25 4. An information system that immediately responds to the physical systems is called: a) Live system b) On-line System c) Off-line system d) Real time system e) none 5. Route adopted by large companies for payment of dividends to shareholders is called a) ECS Debit b) RTGS c) ECS Credit d) either (b) or (c) e) either (a) or (c) 6. Which combination of keys needs to be pressed to make a percent sign? a) Shift+2 b) Shift+3 c) Shift+4 d) Shift+5 e) Shift+9 7. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers? a) Average b) Count c) Minimum d) Maximum e) None of these 8. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit board. What is the common name for such boards? a) Daughter board b) Motherboard c) Father board d) Breadboard e) CPU 9. MB launched its first personal computer called IBM-PC in 1981. It had chips from Intel, disk drives from Tan don, operating system from Microsoft, the printer from Epson and the application software from everywhere. Can you name the country which contributed the video display? a) India b) China c) Germany d) Taiwan e) Japan 10. What is meant by a dedicated computer? a) Which is used by one person only b) Which is assigned one and only one task c) Which uses one kind of software d) Which is meant for application software e) All the above 11. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands? a) 1978 b) 1984 c) 1990 d) 1989 e) 1991 12. The information stored in storage devices can be accessed in ______ a) RAM access & ROM access b) Memory access & Disk access c) Random access & shift access d) Sequential access & Direct access e) All the above 13. Which of the following is the most commonly used encoding standard of Unicode? a) UTF-6 b) UTF-7 c) UTF-5 d) UTF-9 e) UTF-8 14. UML is stands for a) Universal Modelling Language b) Unified Modelling Language c) United Modelling Language d) Unit Modelling Language e) Uni Modelling Language 15. Which of the following translator program converts assembly language program to object program? a) assembler b) compiler c) microprocessor d) linker e) sender 16. Which protocol is used to transfer web pages? a) TCP/IP b) SMTP c) POP3 d) HTTP e) HPTP 17. A self-sufficient computer that acts as both a server and a client is known as a) Host b) Client c) Server d) Terminal e) Peer 18. The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to a) simplex lines b) half-duplex lines c) full duplex lines d) bi flex-lines e) tri flex lines 19. A system program that sets up an executable program in main memory ready for execution is a) assembler b) linker c) compiler d) Coding e) loader 20. A table can be logically connected to another table by defining a a) Super key b) Candidate key c) Primary key d) Unique key e) Common attribute. 21. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause? a) Over heat b) Power surges c) EMI d)Incomplete path for ESD e) None of the above 22. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up? a) ROM BIOS b) CPU c) boot.ini d) CONFIG.SYS e) .bat 23. A collaborative network that uses Internet Technology to link business with their suppliers is --- a) Internet b) Intranet c) Extranet d) WAN e) LAN 24. Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model consists of - a) 5-layers b) 6-layers c) 7-layers d) 8-layers e) 9-layers 25. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is - a) Bridge b) Gateway c) Router d) Modem e) CPU 26. A collection of raw facts is called - a) Output b) Information c) Bits d) Data e) Files 27. A __ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu. a) dialog box b) submenu c) menu selection d) all the above e) None 28. What is the permanent memory built into your computer called? a) RAM b) Floppy c) CPU d) ROM e) Hard disk 29. Storage that retains its data after the power is turned off is referred to as- a) volatile storage b) non-volatile storage c) sequential storage d) direct storage e) indirect storage 30. Which of the following is an example of connectivity? a) internet b) floppy disk c) power card d) data e) file 31. ___ is the process of finding errors in software code. a) Compiling b) Testing c) Running d) Debugging e) Marking 32. Which of the following is not as language for computer programming a) Windows b) PASCAL c) BASIC d) COBOL e) .net 33. ____is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors. a) Tracking b) Formatting c) Crashing d) Allotting e) Storing 34. What is the shortcut key to "Undo" the last action in a document? a) Ctrl + X b) Ctrl + y c) Ctrl + Z d) Ctrl + U e) Ctrl + V 35. The language that the computer can understand and execute is called- a) machine language b) application software c) system program d) all of these e) none of these 36. Which of the following is not hardware- a) magnetic tape b) printer c) VDU terminal d) assembler e) pointer 37. What are the basic types of memory that your computer uses- a) RAM b) RW/RAM c) ROM d) both A and C e) both A,B and C 38. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is- a) HTTP b) Browser c) WWW d) B2B e) B2A 39. The ___ enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window. a) tab box b) pop-up helper c) tab row d) address bar e) none 40. Which ports connect special types of music instruments to sound cards? a) BUS b) CPU c) USB d) MIDI e) RAM 41. You can ____ a search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results. a) refine b) expand c) load d) query e) unload 42. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into- a) web sites b) information c) programs d) objects e) web engines 43. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the: a) Hard disk b) CPU c) Mainframe d) Platform e) System unit 44. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the: a) Digital divide b) Internet divides c) Web divides d) Broadband divide e) None 45. DSL is an example of a(n) _____ connection. a) Network b) Wireless c) Slow d) Cable e) Broadband 46. The Analytical Engine developed during First Generation of computers used ___ as a memory unit? a) RAM b) Floppies c) Cards d) Counter Wheels e) Rooms 47. Which type of DOS program can you run to see which serial ports are detected? a) combing b) MSD c) command.com d) SDET e) serial.chk KEY 1) b 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) c 6) d 7) d 8) b 9) d 10) b 11) e 12) d 13) e 14) b 15) b 16) d 17) e 18) c 19) e 20) c 21) a 22) a 23) c 24) c 25) b 26) d 27) a 28) d 29) b 30) a 31) b 32) a 33) b 34) c 35) a 36) d 37) d 38) a 39) c 40) b 41) a 42) b 43) e 44) a 45) e 46) d 47) b -
వినియోగదారులు అనుభూతి...
1. A MARKETING philosophy summarized by the phrase 'a stronger focus on social and ethical concerns in MARKETING' is characteristic of the _____ period. a) production b) sales c) marketing d) societal marketing e) sales marketing 2. The company that overlooks new and better ways to do things will eventually lose customers to another company that has found a better way of serving customer needs is a major tenet of: a) Innovative marketing b) Consumer-oriented marketing c) Value marketing d) Value -of-mission marketing e) None of these 3. According to the ''Marketing and Sales Standards Setting Body'' (MSSSB), which of the following is not a Marketing function? a) Promote marketing intelligence b) Develop sales tactics c) Develop the customer proposition d) Work with other business functions and third parties e) None of these 4. Newsletters, catalogues and invitations to organisation-sponsored events are most closely associated with the Marketing mix activity of: a) Pricing b) Distribution c) Product development d) Promotion e) Selling 5. When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality and value-based price are met or exceeded, _____ is created. a) customer satisfaction b) planning excellence c) a quality rift d) a value line e) none of these 6. Which of the following is not part of the external marketing environment? a) Political b) Legal c) Product d) Socio-cultural e) None of these 7. The phenomenon that customers are happy to work with companies and an organisation to solve problems is referred as: a) Crowd-sourcing b) Communication-sourcing c) Customer co-creation d) Mass-sourcing e) None of these 8. New technology results in new goods and services and it can also: a) Lower the quality of existing products b) Lower the available level of customer service c) Reduce prices through new production and distribution methods d) Bring back products that were considered obsolete e) None of these 9. Marketing managers cannot control ____ but they can at times influence it. a) where advertising is placed b) how products or services are delivered c) the external environment d) how products are priced e) None of these 10. The differentiation of a firm's products or services to promote environmental responsibility is referred to as: a) Social branding b) Eco-branding c) Me-too branding d) Brand personality e) None of these 11. The level of commitment that consumers feel towards a given brand is called? a) Brand equity b) Brand name c) Brand loyalty d) Brand utility e) None of these 12. With respect to consumer behavior, one's friends and relatives could be considered as a/ an: a) Impersonal influence b) Reference group influence c) Perceptual influence d) Institutional influences e) None of these 13. Which of the following is not part of the consumer proposition acquisition process? a) Motive development b) Information gathering c) Proposition evaluation d) Perception e) None of these 14. The purchasing department reorders on a routine basis, very often working from an approved list of suppliers. This is referred to as: a) Straight rebuy b) New task c) Modified rebuy d) Routine buying e) All the above 15. The purchasing strategy is based on collaboration in research and development. This is called: a) Bargainer b) Clock wiser c) Adapter d) Updater e) All the above 16. A Marketing research firm contracts with clients to conduct a complete marketing research project from data collection, analysis and reporting. It is a____firm. a) consultant b) field agency c) full-service agency d) tabulation agency e) none of these 17. Second-hand data, collected for someone else's purposes, is known as: a) Primary research b) Descriptive research c) Causal research d) Secondary research e) None of these 18. Which technique is used to collect data that has been previously collected for a purpose other than the current research situation? a) Secondary research b) Primary research c) Desk research d) Secondary research and desk research e) None of these 19. ____ systems are used to mine customer data, particularly when undertaking research into characterizing customer groups and their product/ service usage. a) Customer relationship management (CRM) b) Marketing information system (MkIS) c) Computer-assisted web interviewing (CAWI) d) Share of Wallet (SOW) e) All the above 20. What is the term used to describe the degree to which the data elicited in a study is replicated in a repeat study? a) Replication b) Pre-code c) Reliability d) Convenience e) None of these 21. The ____ process commences at corporate level. Here the organisation sets out its overall mission, purpose and values. a) researching b) strategic planning c) controlling d) managing e) all the above 22. A statement about what an organisation wants to become, which sets out an organisation's future, is referred to as: a) Mission b) Values c) Organisational goals d) Vision e) All the above 23. A statement that sets out what the organisation wishes to achieve in the long term is referred to as: a) Mission b) Vision c) Values d) Strategic context e) None of these 24. Organisational values are important because they: a) Help shape mission statements b) Help increase sales c) Help guide behavior and the recruitment and selection decisions d) Help define market research e) None of these 25. Which of the following are the three broad groups of consumer segmentation criteria? a) Behavioral, psychological and profile criteria b) Behavioral-, gender- and industry- type variables c) Organisational size, demographic and behavioral variables d) Psychographic, sociological and price variables e) All the above 26. A commonly used basis for segmenting consumer MARKETS is: a) Organisational size b) Demographics c) Product type d) Price e) Product 27. ACORN, a segmentation analysis technique, stands for: a) A Corresponding Official Residential Notation b) A Classification of Reported Nationals c) A Classification of Residential Neighborhoods d) A Countrywide Official Resources Navigation e) None of these 28. The family life cycle: a) Is a way to apply psychographic segmentation b) Refers to the process of family formation and dissolution c) Provides insights into the relationships among age, occupation, income and housing d) Is composed of the 11 stages of personal growth from infancy to retirement e) None of these 29. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper ____ a) Product distribution b) Networking of branches c) High pricing d) Placement of counter staff e) Relationship management 30. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to? a) Globalization b) Increased production c) Increased job opportunities d) Increased staff e) Increased production 31. The best promotional tool in any marketing is ___ a) Pamphlets b) News letters c) Word of mouth publicity d) Regional advertisement e) Viral marketing 32. Marketing of services is adopted in ___ a) Grocery stores b) Garment trade c) Medicine shops d) Fruit stalls e) Hotels 33. Which of the following is not a 'Post testing' technique of advertisement? a) Sales test b) Focus group c) Enquiry test d) Attitude test e) None of these 34. Which of the following information forms available to the marketing manager, can usually be accessed more quickly and cheaply than other information sources? a) Marketing intelligence b) Marketing research c) Customer profiles d) Internal databases e) None of these 35. Market Segmentation means dividing? a) The marketing teams into small groups b) The employees as per their grads c) The products, as per their usage d) The products, as per their life cycle e) The market, as per the tastes and needs of different groups 36. Modern method of marketing requires ___ a) Publicity on the net b) Advertisement on the net c) Soliciting business through e - mails d) Telemarketing e) All the above KEY: 1) d; 2) a; 3) b; 4) d; 5) a; 6) c; 7) a; 8) c; 9) c; 10) b; 11) c; 12) b; 13) d; 14) a; 15) d; 16) c; 17) d; 18) a; 19) a; 20) c; 21) b; 22) d ; 23) a; 24) c; 25) a; 26) b; 27) c; 28) b; 29) e; 30) b; 31) c; 32) e; 33) c; 34) d; 35) e; 36) e. -
పాజిటివ్ థింగ్ మార్పు తీసుకురావడానికి...
Model Questions Directions (Q.No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. India has made considerable strides of development in the recent times. But it is dogged by deep poverty, literacy, ill-health, malnutrition and corruption. Bright, idealistic and confident youngsters are becoming hopeless, diffident, self-seeking and unhappy by the time they reach forty years of age. The Indian political system and environment must be blamed for this situation. This is not how India can be built into a great nation. More than 200 million Indians do not have safe drinking water. About 750 million Indians do not have sanitation facilities. Our politicians keep the people poor, illiterate, and helpless. In the Human Development Index, India is ranked low, but we rank high in corruption. Indian's record in primary and higher education is pitiful. The worst thing is that our environment is making like this hence this way a great nation cannot be built. In order to achieve positive tran-sformation and make India a better and happy place, a few inputs are necessary. First of all, the people must identify themselves as Indians and rise above their narrow attachments to their states, religions and castes. These are narrow domestic walls. Only merit must be taken into consideration. Whatever the role people get, they must play it with enthusiasm. The people must inculcate strict discipline. Then only they will get success. They must get rid of their biases. They must realize that the interests of the nation are foremost. They must lead others by personal example. N.R. Narayana Murthy prays to God to give the people the required strength, determination and character to transform India into a successful nation. He was discussing exciting new developments in the field of computer science with a large group of students and how such developments would alter our future. He was articulate, passionate and quite convincing. 1. The problems which are yet to be addressed are ____ 1) literacy, ill-health, malnutrition and corruption 2) poverty, literacy, ill-health, malnutrition and corruption 3) literacy and malnutrition 4) literacy and ill-health 5) literacy, ill-health, malnutrition and identity 2. Dr.N.R.Narayana Murthy makes the blame for the pathetic situation in which India is present on ____ 1) literacy, ill-health and malnutrition 2) people and places 3) people and leaders 4) political system and environment 5) religion and caste 3. In India on what aspects are we ranked low and high? 1) The Human Development Index, corruption 2) Corruption, poverty 3) Poverty, illiteracy 4) Education, nutrition 5) In the Human Development Index 4. The positive thing of concern to bring a change is ___ 1) Merit 2) Caste 3) Religion 4) Region 5) Nation 5. One can succeed through ____. 1) Merit 2) Strict discipline 3) Money 4) Influence 5) Politics Directions (Q.No. 6-8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 6. ARTICULATE 1) Eloquent 2) Passion 3) Fervor 4) Success 5) Smart 7. DOGGED 1) Resolute 2) Rest 3) Yield 4) Waver 5) Fluctuate 8. PITIFUL 1) Admirable 2) Appreciable 3) Applaudable 4) Pathetic 5) Strong Directions (Q. No. 9 & 10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. POSITIVE 1) Vibrant 2) Colourful 3) Pessimistic 4) Plentiful 5) Placate 10. NARROW 1) Constricted 2) Tapered 3) Conical 4) Expensive 5) Expansive Directions (Q.No. 11-15): Each question below has blank/ blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word/ set of words from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 11. He visited the place where Mrs. Gandhi was _____. 1) kill 2) assassinated 3) tortured 4) addressed 5) destroyed 12. The police officer went in ____ clothes so that no one might ____ him. 1) plane; realize 2) plain; release 3) plane; remind 4) plain; recognize 5) plan; restore 13. He is very rich, ____ he is unhappy. 1) but 2) also 3) yet 4) though 5) although 14. On account of _____, the company suffered a great loss. 1) mismanagement 2) conduct 3) behaviour 4) style 5) manner 15. The minister _____ the school by ____ the lamp. 1) started; listening 2) progress; lightening 3) inaugurated; lighting 4) begin; starting 5) commence; beginning Directions (Q.No. 16-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake / error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 16. Before he started out (1) / he had collected all the (2) / information about the country (3)/ he was going to visit. (4) / No error (5) 17. The child picked up (1)/ a burned paper (2)/ from the (3)/ debris left behind by the inferno. (4)/ No error (5) 18. When she (1)/is finishes her studies (2)/ she wants (3)/ to become a reporter.(4)/No error (5) 19. My sister-in-law (1)/ along with her daughter (2)/ were present (3) / at the function. (4) / No error (5) 20. After you will return (1) / from Cochin (2) / I will come (3) / and see you. (4) / No error (5) 21. Excellent cannot be (1)/ achieved through luck (2) / it is the result of (3) / a lot of hard work and practice. (4) / No error (5) 22. I went to the Principal (1)/ because I wanted (2) / to know as to why (3) / I was detained. (4) / No error (5) 23. Hardly had (1) / I left the school (2) / than it began (3) / to rain. (4) / No error (5) 24. Do you object to me (1) / sitting in this room (2) / and reading a book (3) / for a short while? (4) / No error (5) 25. I have been living here (1) / since four years (2) / but no one has (3) / noticed my presence so far. (4) / No error (5) Directions (Q. 26 - 30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 26. Harish is strongly desiring to buy a car, so that he can travel fast and reach the office in time. 1) strongly desires 2) is desiring strongly 3) desired strongly 4) was strongly desiring 5) No correction required 27. Gita informed me that she will visit my house in a day or two. 1) she would visit my house in a day or two. 2) she visits my house in a day or two. 3) she could visit my house in the coming two days. 4) she couldn't visit my house in a day or two. 5) No correction required 28. The man spent a lot because he had so large amount of money. 1) he had a large lot of money. 2) he had a large number of money. 3) he had a large amount of rupees. 4) he had a large amount of money. 5) No correction required 29. He believed that one of his companions is a cheat. 1) that each of his companions was a cheat. 2) that each one of his companions a cheat. 3) that one of his companions are a cheat. 4) that one of his companions was a cheat. 5) No correction required 30. A writer always is having his own vision of life. 1) always is having 2) every time is having 3) always has 4) every time will have 5) No correction required -
ప్రకటన సరళీకృత చేయవచ్చు
CODED - INEQUALITIES This is one of the easiest and most scoring topics in the bank examinations, either Probationary officers or clerks. A statement (expression) consists of a group of elements and the relationship among them, which would not be equal, may be given in coded form. Before discussing on the steps to be followed for solving the questions, the meaning of certain symbols as well as some specific statements have to be clearly understood. Symbols: >, ³, <, £, ¹ · The symbol '>' indicates greater than · The symbol '³' indicates greater than or equal to · The symbol '<' indicates lesser than · The symbol '£' indicates lesser than or equal to · The symbol '¹' indicates not equal to. The meaning of it is that either greater than or smaller than Statements: Statement 1: "A is not greater than B". Explanation: If A is not greater than B means A should be either equal to B or lesser than B. So, It can be understood as A £ B Statement 2: "A is not lesser than B". Explanation: If A is not lesser than B, then A should be either equal to B or greater than B. It can be represented as A³B Statement 3: "A is neither greater than nor equal to B". Explanation: Based on the statement it is clear that A < B Statement 4: "A is neither lesser than nor equal to B". Explanation: If A is not either lesser than or equal to B then it should be greater than B which can be represented as A > B. Statement 5: "A is neither greater than nor lesser than B". Explanation: As A cannot be either greater than or lesser than B then A is equal to B. Based on the above narration it is understood that the relationship among the elements may not be equal. So, the following steps have to be performed to derive the valid conclusions from the given statement/s. 1. Firstly, the statement may be having different pairs of elements with a distinct relationship among them. These pairs of elements have to be properly arranged by identifying the connecting elements. 2. The codes have to be understood and represented with the proper symbols in the statement. 3. Checking the validity of conclusions based on the interpretation of the statement. The following illustration helps in better understanding the subject Example: · 'P©Q' means 'P' is greater than 'Q'. · 'P%Q' means 'P' is smaller than 'Q'. · 'P@Q' means 'P' is either greater than or equal 'Q'. · 'P$Q' means 'P' is either smaller than or equal to 'Q'. · 'P#Q' means 'P' is equal to 'Q'. Statement: C © D, A % B, E @ F, D $ E, B # C Step 1: © ® > % ® < @ ® ³ $ ® £ # ® = A%B, B#C, C©D, D$E, E@F, (B is a connecting element for the pairs AB and BC. C is a connecting element for BC and CD. D is a connecting element for CD and DE, and E for the pairs DE and EF). So, the statement can be simplified as A% B # C © D $ E @ F Step 2: The meaning of the complete statement A% B#C©D$E@F is A < B = C > D £ E ³ F Step 3: 1. B > D 2. A < C Both the conclusion 1 and 2 are true. Questions: In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. 5) If both conclusions I and II are true. Directions (Q 1-10): In the following questions, the symbols $,@,%, © and # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below: · 'P©Q' means 'P' is greater than 'Q'. · 'P%Q' means 'P' is smaller than 'Q'. · 'P@Q' means 'P' is either greater than or equal 'Q'. · 'P$Q' means 'P' is either smaller than or equal to 'Q'. · 'P#Q' means 'P' is equal to 'Q'. 1) Statements: M @ R, R ©F, F#L Conclusions: I. R@L II.M@L Solution: 4. M ³ R>F=L. So, R>L. Hence, conclusion I is not true. Even, the Conclusion II is not true. 2) Statements: T $ J, J @ V, V # W Conclusions: I. T©W II. W@T Solution: 3 T £ J ³ V= W Either I or II follows. 3) Statements: J @ D, D$ L, L#N Conclusions: I. J # L II. J $ L Solution: 4 J ³ D £ L = N Both the conclusions are not true 4) Statements: R $ M, M%H,H$F Conclusions: I. R % F II. M$F Solution: 1 R £ M < H £ F. Hence, R< F. Conclusion I is true. As M< F conclusion II is not true. 5) Statements: K $ H, H % I, I © F Conclusions: I. K $ I II.H % F Solution: 4 K £ H < I > F. As K< I, conclusion I is not true. H and F can't be compared. Hence, conclusion II is not true. 6) Statements: K @ B, B#J, J ©T Conclusions: I. K#T II. B@T Solution: 4 K ³ B = J >T K > T. Hence, Conclusion I is not true. B >T. So, conclusion II is not true. 7) Statements: F $ M, M @L,L#W Conclusions: I. W$M II. F@L Solution: I F £ M ³ L = W M ³ W. By conversion W £ M. Hence, conclusion I is true. We can't compare F and L. Hence, conclusion II is not true. 8) Statements: R #Q, Q @F, F % A Conclusions: I. R ©A II. R#F Solution: 4 R = Q ³ F < A We can't compare R and A. Hence, conclusion I is not true. R ³ F. Hence, conclusion II is not true. 9) Statements: V$X, X © Y, Y % H Conclusions: I. Y@V II. H#V Solution: 4 V £ X > Y < H We can't compare V and Y. Hence, conclusion I is not true. Again, H and V can't be compared. So, conclusion II is not true. 10) Statements: M@ B,B # A,A @F Conclusions: I. M #A II. B#F Solution: 4 M ³ B = A ³F As M ³ A, conclusion I is not true. Again, as B³F, conclusion II is not true. -
విమాన రాజధాని అంటే ఏమిటి?
1. Which of the following commissions recommended for establishment of Reserve Bank of India? a) Deshmukh Committee b) Hilton young commission c) Presidency Banking Commission d) Narasimhan Committee e) Osbone Smith Committee 2. RBI has capped the _______ to Rs. 35000 Crore to central government for the first half of the new financial year 2015. a) Bridge Loan b) Long term loan to repay the World Bank loan c) Ways and means advance d) Advance to promote Government Schemes e) Advance for improving infrastructure for the newly formed states in India 3. RBI has been authorised by Central Government to issue debt instruments not exceeding Rs.50000 Crore during the fiscal 2014-15 under MSS. What do you mean by MSS? a) Marginal Stability Scheme b) Market standardisation Scheme c) Market Stabilisation Scheme d) Marginal Stabilisation scheme e) None of the above 4. Which bank has started issuing Kisan Card to withdraw one lakh per day from ATMs? a) Axis Bank b) ICICI Bank c) HDFC Bank d) State Bank of India e) Punjab National Bank 5. Who is recently named as the India's governor on the board of governors of Asian Development Bank? a) Sushma Swaraj b) Arun Jaitley c) Murali Manohar Joshi d) H.R.Khan e) Venkaiah Naidu 6. The rate of interest on Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) loan introduced in the year 1972 is __ a) 4% b) 5% c) 6% d) 3% e) Depends on the loan 7. Which of the following banks were merged with State Bank of India? a) State Bank of Indore b) State Bank of Sourasthra c) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur d) State Bank of Patiala e) a & b 8. When a person wants to save money for a longer period of time with a view to earn a higher rate of interest, he/ she should open which of the following types of accounts? a) Savings account b) Current account c) Terms Deposit account d) Recurring account e) None of these 9. For obtaining which among the following, does a customer not require a bank account? a) A Loan b) A Cheque c) A Banker's Draft d) A debit Card e) All of the above 10. When RBI sells Government securities, its result: a) The liquidity in the banking system increases b) The liquidity in the banking system remains unchanged c) The liquidity in the banking system gets diminished d) The Deflation will be controlled e) The borrowers get credit at cheaper rate 11. The banks are in process to bring in biometric ATMs. These are specially aimed to address the needs of which of the following categories? a) Urban customers b) Rural customers c) Students d) Women e) None of these 12. What do you mean by flight of capital? a) Large number of investors of a country transferring their investments elsewhere due to disturbed economic conditions b) Investment in risky projects c) Large amount of inflow of capital from NRIs d) b & c e) None of the above 13. Fourteen banks were nationalised on 19.07.1969 as per: a) Companies Act 1956 b) Banking Regulation Act 1949 c) Banking Companies (Acquisition and transfer of undertakings) ordinance Act, 1969 d) RBI Act 1934 e) Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 14. Under PMJDY, every account holder will get a ____ a) Rupay debit card b) Rs. 1.00 lack accident insurance c) Rs. 30,000 for natural death d) Rs. 25000 credit card limit e) a, b & c 15. The Phase II of PMJDY (15th August, 2015 to 14th August, 2018) covers ____ a) Creation of Credit Guarantee Fund for coverage of defaults in overdraft A/Cs b) Micro Insurance c) Unorganized sector Pension schemes like Swavlamban d) Only a & b e) a, b & c 16. How many times nomination in deposit accounts can be changed? a) Only one b) Maximum two times c) Once in a year d) At the discretion of the concerned bank e) No such restriction 17. BIS which has representative offices in Hong Kong and Mexico was established on 17th May 1930, wherein BIS stands for: a) Bank for Industrial Settlements b) Bank for International Settlements c) Bank with Industrial standards d) Bureau of Indian Standards e) None of the above 18. Which Indian is one of the Board of Directors in BIS (Bank for International Settlements)? a) Arun Jaitley b) Chidambaram c) Raghuram Rajan d) Arundhathi subramanyam e) SS Mundra 19. Basel III Norms are to be fully implemented by ____ a) 31 march 2020 b) 31 March 2019 c) 31 March 2025 d) 30 September 2014 e) None of these 20. What are the powers of RBI under section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 for issuing directions to Bank? a) To issue directions in the public interest or in the interest of banking policy b) To prevent affairs of banking company if it is detrimental to the interests of depositors c) To secure the proper management of any banking company d) All the above e) Only a & b 21. As per Basel III, Banks would be required to maintain capital Adequacy Ratio of ____ including Ca-pital Conservation Buffer (CCB). a) 11.5 b) 10.5 c) 9.5 d) 8.5 e) 12.5 22. SEBI Head Office is located in: a) Hyderabad b) Pune c) Mumbai d) New Delhi e) Chennai 23. Which of the following are the targets for different categories of priority sector? a) Overall target 40% of net Bank credit b) Agriculture loans (direct and indirect) 18% c) Priority sector target for foreign Banks is 32% d) All the above e) None of the above 24. In terms of section 19 of the RBI Act 1934, the RBI has been prohibited from: a) Acting as lender of last resort to banks b) Drawing or accepting bills payable otherwise than on demand c) Allowing interest on deposits or current accounts d) Deciding Repo and Reverse Repo Rates e) Deciding Bank Rate 25. Budget allocation for the rural housing scheme in the Union Budget 2014 - 15 is ____ a) Rs. 6,000 cr b) Rs. 8,000 cr c) Rs. 10,000 cr d) Rs. 12,000 cr e) None of the above 26. RBI allocating the funds from the subvention of rate of interest to Bank loans given to farmers by pledging their gold comes under _____ a) Traditional function b) Supervisory function c) Promotional function d) Derilictory function e) None of these 27. Review of banks performance is one of the functions of ____ a) Promotional function b) Administrative function c) Supervisory functions d) Negative functions e) None 28. AS per RBI order, against the certificate of Deposit, the ____ a) Loan cannot be granted b) Loan can be granted c) Loan can be granted up to 50% of value d) Loan can be granted up to 75% of value e) None of these 29. An order cheque is endorsed as "without recourse to me" by the endorser. This endorsement is known as a) Blank endorsement b) Restrictive endorsement c) Endorsement in full d) Sans recourse endorsement e) None of these 30. Bank A allows one of its clients to withdraw against clearing of a cheque, The banker is called as: a) Collecting and paying banker b) Holder in due course c) Holder for value d) Reimbursement banker e) Any of the above 31. Which one of the Non Resident Deposit schemes is not permitted? a) FCNR A/cs b) NRNR A/cs c) NRE A/cs d) NRO A/cs e) NREO A/cs 32. Capital adequacy is worked out based on: a) Total demand and time liabilities b) Net demand and time assets c) Risk weighted assets d) Risk weighted liabilities e) Only a & b 33. The whole time Directors of a Bank are appointed by: a) Reserve Bank of India b) Central government in consultation with RBI c) Individual Bank d) All the above e) None of the above 34. Maximum amount that can be referred to Banking Ombudsman is ___ a) Rs. 5 lakh b) Rs. 10.00 lakh c) Rs. 4.00 lakh d) Rs. 3.00 lakh e) Rs. 2.00 lakh 35. Which of the following is the first universal bank of India? a) HDFC b) Axis Bank c) ICICI d) Federal Bank e) None of these 36. Which of the following guidelines are applicable in connection with short fall in lending to priority sector? a) Equivalent amount of shortfall under agriculture sector should be invested with RIDF b) Any shortfall in achieving sub-target under SSI sector, an equivalent amount should be invested with SIDBI c) The interest rates on banks' contribution to RIDF shall be fixed by Reserve Bank of India from Time to time. d) The foreign banks having shortfall in lending to stipulated priority sector target/ sub-targets will Be required to contribute to Small Enterprises Development Fund (SEDF) e) All of the above -
బ్యాంక్స్ స్పెషల్
Model Questions Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Plagiarism is using the words or ideas of someone else as if they were your own. Universities consider plagiarism to be a serious offence and you need to take great care to avoid it. The Student Development website has a range of interactive on-line tutorials on how to avoid plagiarism. Unfortunately, it is relatively easy to find yourself in danger of plagiarizing another's work, even though you have no intention of doing so. In India the advancements to check plagiarism are facing teething troubles. As technology has improved tremendously it has become very easy to get information pertaining to any subject with the click of the mouse. Internet and World Wide Web has changed the pace of the world. At the same time many people are using data from these sources without acknowledging them resorting to plagiarism. Technological advancements in this field has made it possible to develop software to check plagiarism. By using this software the research papers, dissertations and thesis are checked and approved only if they pass through this check. The quality of any research article can thus be analyzed by using a plagiarism check. 1. According to the writer, Plagiarism check in India 1) still needs to develop 2) is very strict and firm 3) is affected by red tape 4) is more or less effective 5) is effective only sometimes 2. Technological advancements are made easy to be known because of 1) internet & intranet 2) LAN & RAM 3) internet & WWW 4) encyclopedia 5) large information 3. The central idea of passage could be best expressed by the following 1) It is easy to copy information 2) It is easy to keep information 3) It is easy to check plagiarism 4) It is tough for copying 5) It is acceptable copying data from other sources 4. The quality of any research article can be analyzed by 1) experts 2) novice 3) software 4) apprentice 5) greenhorn 5. The information on how to avoid plagiarism is available on 1) student development website 2) interactive tutorials 2) off line course 3) staff 4) teachers 5) thesis Directions (Q. 6-8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 6. Offence 1) breach 2) behavior 3) perfection 4) aptness 5) precision 7. Avoid 1) evade 2) evoke 3) excite 4) excuse 5) exit 8. Intention 1) trust 2) target 3) tip 4) test 5) draft Directions (Q. 9-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. Possible 1) probable 2) potential 3) feasible 4) unlikely 5) fanciful 10. Approved 1) permit 2) standard 3) official 4) pertain 5) censure Directions (Q. 11-20): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 11. In India social responsibility is ______ ancient ______ venerable tradition. 1) a, an 2) an, a 3) an, and 4) the, an 5) a, but 12. I enjoyed ______ as I walked along the lane. 1) much 2) very 3) myself 4) being 5) very 13. This is a good example to go by -______ solving the problems. 1) and 2) amidst 3) while 4) your 5) prize 14. You need to ______ your statement with correct data. 1) back up 2) break up 3) broke out 4) break in 5) bear with 15. When he tried to play ______ her emotions, she turned out very ______. 1) active, vigorous 2) timid, vibrant 3) lazy, vociferous 4) with, violent 5) at, velocity 16. The professor as well as the lecturer ______ to conduct the examination next week. 1) has accepted 2) have accepted 3) having accepted 4) has been accepting 5) will accept 17. She is good ______ at games ______ at studies. 1) either, or 2) neither, nor 3) both, but 4) but, and 5) not only, and 18. He wanted to read the directions ______. 1) right 2) wrongly 3) carefully 4) startlingly 5) mostly 19. We are still at the ______ of how IT and computing really ______ the world. 1) going, dropped 2) encouraged, prepared 3) beginning, impact 4) cross, vow 5) post, made 20. Modern games use cheap hardware and ______ to create three-dimensional worlds. 1) software 2) soft wire 3) soft wear 4) softwares 5) warehouse Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 21. Don't exert (1)/ yourself lest (2)/ you will (3)/ fall sick. (4)/ No error (5) 22. Educational institutions need to (1)/ recognize the importance of nurturing creativity, (2)/ both in its own right (3)/ as well as a path to formal, structured learning. (4)/ No error (5) 23. The assurance that (1)/ he will cured (2)/ from the disease (3)/ pleased him very much. (4)/ No error (5) 24. Her ability to (1)/ talk to strangers (2)/ is one of her (3)/ stronger points. (4)/ No error (5) 25. After you will return (1)/ from America (2)/ I will come (3)/ and see you. (4)/ No error (5) Directions: (Q. 26 - 30): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 26. I do not know whether tomorrow is a holiday for the college. 1) is a holiday for college 2) will be a holiday for the college 3) will be a holiday to the college 4) will be a holiday of the college 5) No correction required 27. Scarcely did I step on the bridge then it broke. 1) then it was breaking 2) than it broke 3) when it broke 4) when it has broken 5) No correction required 28. Neither the Principal nor the members of the committee had attended the meeting. 1) have attended the meeting 2) has attended the meeting 3) is attending the meeting 4) will have attended the meeting 5) No correction required 29. He looked as though he hasn't had a decent meal for a week. 1) hadn't had 2) didn't have 3) wouldn't have 4) shouldn't have 5) No correction required 30. The master tested the new boy to see if he can read English. 1) if he would 2) if he will 3) if he could 4) whether he will 5) No correction required Directions (Q. 31-40): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. There are vast amounts of water on earth. Unfortunately, over 97% of it is ____ (31) salty for human ____ (32) and only a fraction of the remainder is____ (33) accessible in rivers, lakes or groundwater. Climate change, droughts, ____ (34) population and increasing industrial demand ____ (35) straining the available supplies of fresh water. More than 1 billion people live in areas where water is ____ (36), according to the United Nations, and that number could increase to 1.8 billion by 2025. One time-tested ____ (37) expensive way to produce drinking water is desalination. The world's oceans, in particular, present a ____ (38) limitless and drought-proof supply of water. The good news is (39) advances in technology and manufacturing have ____ (40) the cost and energy requirements of desalination. 31. 1) any 2) much 3) some 4) few 5) too 32. 1) consumption 2) consume 3) constitute 4) constitution 5) conspire 33. 1) emphatically 2) positive 3) easily 4) forcibly 5) definite 34. 1) result 2) growing 3) causing 4) until 5) making 35. 1) any 2) were 3) had 4) are 5) no 36. 1) scarce 2) positive 3) present 4) plenty 5) definite 37. 1) found 2) but 3) with 4) while 5) and 38. 1) variety 2) while 3) causing 4) virtually 5) making 39. 1) than 2) when 3) while 4) that 5) stuff 40. 1) reduced 2) reduction 3) ready 4) radiation 5) radiate Key 1) 1; 2) 3; 3) 1; 4) 3; 5) 1; 6) 1; 7) 1; 8) 2; 9) 4; 10) 5; 11) 3; 12) 3; 13) 3; 14) 1; 15) 4; 16) 1; 17) 2; 18) 3; 19) 3; 20) 1; 21) 3; 22) 4; 23) 2; 24) 4; 25) 1; 26) 2; 27) 3; 28) 1; 29) 1; 30) 3; 31) 5; 32) 1; 33) 3; 34) 2; 35) 4; 36) 1; 37) 2; 38) 4; 39) 4; 40) 1. -
అండ్ దెన్ వన్డే ఆటోబయోగ్రఫీ
1. State Bank of India celebrated 150 years of its operations in which of the following countries in September 2014? 1) Sri Lanka 2) Mauritius 3) China 4) Vietnam 5) None of these 2. The 17th Asian Games are started on 2014 September 19 in which of the following cities? 1) Seoul 2) Incheon 3) Busan 4) Beijing 5) Hanoi 3. Who won the Indonesian Mas-ters Grand Prix Gold badminton title in Palembang, Indonesia on 2014 September 14? 1) Parupalli Kashyap 2) Aravind Bhat 3) H.S. Prannoy 4) R.V. Gurusaidutt 5) None of these 4. Who is the author of the book "Strictly Personal: Manmohan and Gursharan"? 1) Shashi Tharoor 2) Sanjay Baru 3) P.C. Parakh 4) Daman Singh 5) Natwar Singh 5. International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer is celebrated on? 1) September 5 2) September 8 3) September 15 4) September 18 5) September 16 6. Who has been appointed as the President-elect of the Internatio-nal Economic Association (IEA)? 1) Amartya Sen 2) Rakesh Mohan 3) Jagdeesh Bhagwathi 4) Kaushik Basu 5) Aravind Subramanyam 7. Frank Walter Steinmeier visited India in September 2014. He is the Foreign Minister of? 1) France 2) Spain 3) Germany 4) Poland 5) Portugal 8. 'And Then One Day' is the autobiography of which of the following film actors? 1) Waheeda Rehman 2) Dilip Kumar 3) Anupam Kher 4) Naseeruddin Shah 5) Amol Palekar 9. India's second nuclear fuel complex will come up at? 1) Kota, Rajasthan 2) Jhajjar, Haryana 3) Mysore, Karnataka 4) Cuttack, Odisha 5) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh 10. In which of the following places atomic plants are proposed? 1) Gorakhpur 2) Jaitapur 3) Mithi Virdhi 4) Both 1 and 2 5) All 1, 2 and 3 11. Which of the following books is written by Hindi author Govind Mishra? 1) Abhi Bilkul Abhi 2) Yahan Se Dekho 3) Vyomkesh Darvesh 4) Dhool Paudho Par 5) None of these 12. India topped the medals tally in the Asian Grand Prix archery championship held in March 2014 in which of the following cities? 1) Tokyo 2) Hong Kong 3) Bangkok 4) New Delhi 5) Tehran 13. Who was appointed as the first woman Director (Commercial) of Navratna Public Sector Unit, National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) recently? 1) Aditi Khanna 2) Soma Mandal 3) Nishi Vasudeva 4) Archana Bhargava 5) Aditi Mukherjee 14. Who is the author of the book "From the Ruins of Empire"? 1) Romila Thapar 2) Kushwant Singh 3) Pankaj Mishra 4) Prasoon Joshi 5) None of these 15. The Indian Navy inducted an indigenously built New- generation Offshore Patrol Vessel (NOPV) into its fleet recently. What is its name? 1) INS Ranvijay 2) INS Sumedha 3) INS Ranvir 4) INS Ranjit 5) INS Rajput 16. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is in the news recently. It is situated in? 1) West Bengal 2) Tripura 3) Assam 4) Meghalaya 5) Odisha 17. Which public sector bank has launched Instant Money Transfer (IMT) scheme, an innovative domestic money remittance facility? 1) Indian Bank 2) Indian Overseas Bank 3) Bank of Baroda 4) Bank of India 5) Punjab National Bank 18. According to the regulatory guidelines, the monthly withdrawal limit prescribed for Instant Money Transfer transaction is how many rupees for receiver? 1) Rs. 25,000 2) Rs.10,000 3) Rs. 50,000 4) Rs. 40,000 5) None of these 19. Who won the 2014 Pritzker Prize for Architecture? 1) Kenzo Tange 2) Oscar Niemeyer 3) Shigeru Ban 4) Aldo Rossi 5) None of these 20. Missy Franklin is the Laureaus Sportswoman of the Year. She is associated with which of the following sports? 1) Gymnastics 2) Swimming 3) Athletics 4) Tennis 5) Squash 21. Indian journalist Shubhranshu Choudhary won which of the following awards/prizes in 2014? 1) Digital Activism Award 2) Pulitzer Prize 3) IAA Olive Crown Award 4) Yale Literary Prize 5) None of these 22. The 2014 International Women of Courage Award was presented by the US first lady Michelle Obama to? 1) Manasi Pradhan 2) Vartika Nanda 3) Seema Sakhare 4) Radha Prashanti 5) Laxmi 23. Mortal remains of about 282 Ind-ian soldiers of 1857 mutiny were exhumed from a well at Ajnala recently. Ajnala is a town in? 1) Rajasthan 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Punjab 4) Uttarakhand 5) Haryana 24. As per the Stockholm Internati-onal Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) which is the world's largest arms importer? 1) India 2) China 3) Pakistan 4) UAE 5) Saudi Arabia 25. India took part in a multilateral Humanitarian Assistance/ Disas-ter Relief (HA/DR) Exercise, KOMODO, conducted in which of the following countries? 1) China 2) South Korea 3) Japan 4) Vietnam 5) Indonesia 26. The Reserve Bank of India has recently extended the deadline for banks to meet capital requirements under the Basel III norms by a year to? 1) 2015 March 31 2) 2019 March 31 3) 2016 March 31 4) 2017 March 31 5) None of these 27. A Reserve Bank of India panel on credit information submitted its report to RBI recently. This panel is headed by Aditya Puri, the Managing Director of? 1) Yes Bank 2) Axis Bank 3) HDFC Bank 4) IndusInd Bank 5) Kotak Mahindra Bank 28. Who won the 2014 All England Open badminton men's singles title? 1) Lee Chong Wei 2) Chen Long 3) Simon Santoso 4) Viktor Axelsen 5) Tian Houwei 29. Vidya Pillai is the women's national champion in which of the following sports? 1) Squash 2) Shooting 3) Archery 4) Snooker 5) None of these 30. Laura Massaro is the women's world open squash champion. She belongs to? 1) Canada 2) Mexico 3) England 4) Portugal 5) Argentina 31. Which country will host the 2016 Nuclear Security Summit? 1) USA 2) India 3) China 4) Russia 5) Argentina 32. MI-17 V5 series helicopters were inducted by the Indian Air Force in March 2014. These are made in? 1) USA 2) Russia 3) Israel 4) France 5) Japan 33. With which sport is Deodhar Trophy associated? 1) Football 2) Volleyball 3) Cricket 4) Hockey 5) Badminton 34. Who won the World Candidates Chess tournament at Khanty Mansisyk, Russia on 2014 March 30? 1) Magnus Carlsen 2) Peter Svidler 3) Vaselin Topalov 4) Viswanathan Anand 5) None of these 35. Andrej Kiska, an entrepreneur and philanthropist, assumed office as the new President of which of the following European countries on 2014 June 15? 1) Latvia 2) Slovenia 3) Czech Republic 4) Bulgaria 5) Slovakia 36. The abbreviation PKI stands for? 1) Public Key Infrastructure 2) Personal Key Infrastructure 3) Private Key Infrastructure 4) Permanent Key Infrastructure 5) Proprietary Key Infrastructure KEY 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5 6) 4 7) 3 8) 4 9) 1 10) 5 11) 4 12) 3 13) 2 14) 3 15) 2 16) 3 17) 4 18) 1 19) 3 20) 2 21) 1 22) 5 23) 3 24) 1 25) 5 26) 2 27) 3 28) 1 29) 4 30) 3 31) 1 32) 2 33) 3 34) 4 35) 5 36) 1 -
తాజా గడ్డి రంగు ఏమిటి?
Direction(Q. 1 - 5): Each of the que-tions below consists two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.. 1) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question; 2) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question; 3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question; 4) If the data either in statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and some more data needed. 5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. (Q. No.1-5: Allahabad Bank PO 21-02-2010) 1. What is the Circumference of a semi circle? I. The radius of the semicircle is equal to half the side of a square. II. The area of the square is 196 sq. cm. 2. What is the exact average of n, 35, 39, 42, p and w? I. n is six more than w. II. w is four less than p. 3. What was the percent profit/loss made/ incurred by selling an article for Rs.24,000? I. The ratio between the selling price and the cost price of the article is 5 : 3 respectively. II. The difference between the cost price and the selling price is Rs. 9,600. 4. What will be the difference between two two-digit numbers? I. The square of the first number is 9 times the second number. II. The ratio between the first number and second is 3:4 respectively. 5. What is the ratio between two numbers x and y? I. 40% of x is 20% of 50. II. 30% of y is 25% of 72. Solutions (1- 5): 1. 5 From statements I and II Side of square == 14 cm \ Circumference of the semi circle = pr + 2r = r (p+2) = 7(p+2) cm. 2. 4 Data are inadequate. 3. 3 From statement I Cost price of article Profit = 24,000–14,400 = Rs. 9,600 \Profit percent 4. 4 5. 5 (Q. No. 6-10: IDBI Bank Officer 16-09-2012) 6. What is the minimum passing percentage in a test? I. Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than Raman. II. Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks. 7. What is the value of x2 + y + z? I. 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = z II. 3x + 3y + 2z = 34 and 2x + 5y + 6z = 72 8. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap? I. Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg. and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg. Also Suraj is 78 kg, Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46kg. II. Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight. 9. What is the respective ratio between the length of a rectangle and side of square? I. Area of the square is 576 sq. cm. and area of the rectangle is 600 sq. cm II. Breadth of the rectangle is half the side of the square. 10. What is the smaller angle of a parallelogram? I. Ratio between the angle of a triangle is 3 : 5 : 4 and the lar-ger angle of the parallelo-gram is 34° more than the lar-gest of the triangle. II. Largest angle of the para-llelogram is 38° more than its smaller angle. Solutions (6- 10): 6. 5 From statements I and II If the total marks be x, then = 288 – 128 = 160 x = 640 If the minimum pass percentage be y, then = 160 + 64 = 224 7. 1 From statement I 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 And 2x = y; 2y = z so z = 4x 4x + 6x + 20x = 60 30x = 60 x = 2; y = 4; z = 8 \x2 + y + z = 4 + 4 + 8 = 16 From statement II We have three unknown quan-tities but two equations. So we can't find the values. 8. 5 From statement I Arun + Vinay + Suraj + Raju + Pratap = 68 ´ 3 + 72 ´ 2 = 204 + 144 = 348 kg Arun + Pratap = 348 – 78 – 68 – 46 = 156 kg From statement II Arun + Suraj + Vinay + Raju = 68 ´ 4 = 272 kg \Pratap = 348 – 272 = 76 kg Arun = 156 – 76 = 80 kg Clearly weight of Suraj is the second biggest. 9. 5 From statement I and II Side of square ==24 cm Area of rectangle = 600 sq cm lb = 600 sq cm l´12 = 600 sq cm l = 50 cm Required ratio = 50 : 24 = 25 : 12 10. 3 From statement I 3x + 5x + 4x = 180° 12x = 180° x = 15° Largest angle of parallelogram = 5x + 34 = 75 + 24 = 109° Second angle = 180 – 109 = 71° From statement II x + x + 38 = 180° 2x= 180 – 38 = 142 x = 71° Practice questions 1. What is the colour of the fresh grass? I. Blue is called green, red is called orange and orange is called yellow. II. Yellow is called white, white is called black, green is called brown and brown is called purple. 2. What does 'nip' stand for in a code language? I. In the code language, 'that is very beautiful' is written as 'se nip sre num'. II. In the same code language, 'my house is beautiful' is written as 'nip sto sre tip'. 3. In a certain code, 'nop al ed' means 'They like flowers'. Which code word means 'flowers'? I. 'id nim nop' means 'They are innocent'. II. 'gob ots al' means' we like roses'. 4. What is the code for 'sky' in the code language? I. 'In the code language, 'sky is clear' is written as 'de ra fa' II. In the same code language, 'make it clear' is written as 'de ga jo'. 5. Which word in the code language means 'flower'? I. 'de fu la pane' means 'rose flower is beautiful' and 'la quiz' means 'beautiful tree'. II. 'de la chin' means 'red rose flower' and 'pa chin' means 'red tea'. 6. Which code word stands for 'good' in the coded sentence 'sin co bye' which means 'He is good'? I. In the same code language, 'co mot det' means 'They are good'. II. In the same code language, 'sin mic bye' means 'He is honest'. 7. What is the code for 'is' in the code language? I. In the code language, 'shi tu ke' means 'pen is blue'. II. In the same code language, 'ke si re' means 'this is won-derful'. 8. What is the code for 'or' in the code language? I. 'nik sa te' means 'right or wrong', 'ro da nik' means 'he is right' and 'fe te ro' means 'that is wrong'. II. 'pa nik la' means 'that right man', 'sa ne pa' means 'this or that' and 'ne ka re' means 'tell this there'. 9. What is the code for 'mangoes' in the code language? I. In that code language, 'Te Le Pa Na' means 'You eat many mangoes' and 'Le Na Da' means 'you sell mangoes'. II. In the code language, 'Ge Na Sa La Le' means 'They eat bananas and mangoes' and 'Ne De Le La' means 'Who others eat bananas'. KEY 1) 1; 2) 4; 3) 5; 4) 4; 5) 4; 6) 3. 7) 5; 8) 3; 9) 5. -
సమూహంలో ఇద్దరు లేడీస్ ఎవరు?
Puzzle Test Puzzle test carries a good weightage of marks either in Reasoning of Bank Po or Clerks exams. There are various models of Puzzle test viz. 1. Simple distribution model: If the puzzle just discusses about the identification and arrangement of various factors such as gender, professions, institutions, colours etc with respect to the subject (persons) given. 2. Grading model: This kind of puzzle demands the ranking or comparison of the people based on their height, weight, age, salaries, marks etc. 3. Seating Arrangement: As the title suggests, the proper seating arrangement of the people should be found out. 4. Series arrangement: In this case, the puzzle revolves around the sequential placing of the given subject. The question may be on the sequence of days, dates, months and even the puzzle listing of the floors in an apartment may be included in this. 5. Combination model (Puzzle with family relations): A simple distribution model or a seating arrangement model pertaining to a family is given. 6. Selection model: The puzzle focuses on selecting a group or a team among the given members by complying with the conditions mentioned there in. Puzzle 1 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H belonging to three families X, Y, Z go for weekend outing in three different cars I, II, III. Four out of the eight members are females. Each car has at least one male and one female member. Each family has at least two members. No member of same family travel in same car. A belongs to family Y and he travels in car III. D is wife of E and they travel in cars I and II respectively. H is son of B, who is wife of G and they belong to family Z. C is daughter of F, who is wife of A. C travels in car II. G does not travel with F. 1. Which of the following groups of persons travels in car I? 1) D, F, G 2) D, E, G 3) D, G, H 4) D, F, H 5) None of these 2. Which car has only two members travelling in it? 1) I 2) II 3) III 4) II or III 5) Cannot be determined 3. Which of the following members of families Y and Z travel in different cars? 1) F, G 2) C, G 3) F, H 4) C, F 5) None of these 4. Which of the following groups of persons is a group of all females? 1) B, D, G 2) A, B, C 3) B, E, F 4) D, E, F 5) None of these 5. Which of the following members of families X and Y travel in the same car? 1) C, F 2) D, F 3) C, D 4) F, E 5) None of these Solution: This is a simple distribution model. The puzzle can be solved by carefully considering all the factors while taking the persons in order. Note: l Each car has at least one male and one female member l No member of same family travel in same car. l G does not travel with F Answers: 1) 4 2) 3 3) 1 4) 5 5) 2 Puzzle 2 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A group of friends having seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G contains four men and three ladies. Each one of them has a different profession – Stockbroker, Lawyer, Doctor, Professor, Engineer, Businessman and Banker – and each one has passed out of a different college – P, S, V, W, X, Y and Z, not necessarily in the same order. None of the ladies is a Businessman or a Stockbroker. C is a Doctor and she has passed out from 'College X'. A is a 'College Y' pass out. B is not a Professor. E is a Banker and is a 'College S' pass out. F is a Stockbroker and has not studied in 'College P'. G is a Businessman and has studied in 'College V'. The Professor is a 'College Z' pass out. The Lawyer has studied in 'College P'. None of the ladies has studied in 'College Y' or 'College S'. 6. What is the profession of D? 1) Doctor 2) Stockbroker 3) Engineer 4) Professor 5) None of these 7. Who among the following is a Lawyer? 1) A 2) B 3) E 4) G 5) None of these 8. Which of the following groups represents ladies in the group of friends? 1) A, B, C 2) E, F, G 3) B, C, D 4) B, E, G 5) None of these 9. From which of the following colleges has the Stockbroker passed out? 1) W 2) Y 3) S 4) X 5) None of these 10. Which of the following combinations is correct? 1) B - Doctor - Female 2) C - W - Male 3) A - Businessman - Y 4) D - Professor - Male 5) None of these Solution: This is a simple distribution model. The puzzle can be solved by carefully considering all the factors while taking the persons in order. Note: CollegeY/ College S: Male Businessman /Stockbroker: Male Answers: 6) 4 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 5 Puzzle 3: There are five friends, namely P, Q, R, S and T of different heights and different ages. There are two females and three males. P is taller than only Q. Only S is taller than T. Two females are not immediately next to each other, and also the persons who are at extreme ends are not females when they are arranged in ascending order. The ascending order of these friends on height automatically places them in reverse order of their ages. P was born in the year 1990. T is exactly one year younger to P. 11. Who is the tallest person? 1) T 2) S 3) R 4) P 5) Q 12. Which year 'S' might have been born? 1) 1992 2) 1990 3) 1989 4) 1988 5) 1987 13. Who is the shortest person as well as the oldest person? 1) T 2) Q 3) P 4) S 5) None 14. Who are the two ladies in the group? 1) S,T 2) T,R 3) R,S 4) T,P 5) Cannot be determined Solution: This is grading model. The persons can be related in the following way. The given statements have to be understood as follows; l 'P is taller than only Q' means that 'P' is taller than 'Q' but shorter than R, S and T. l 'Only S is taller than T' indicates that no body is taller than 'T' other than 'S'. So, 'S' is the tallest and 'T' is the second tallest. As the order of height and that of age are reverse to each other, tallest person is the youngest person and the shortest person is the oldest. Answers: 11) 2 12) 1 13) 2 14) 4 -
భీమా సేవ ..
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect in respect of banking sector, as per the decision taken in Parliament recently? a) The RBI will create framework for licences of small banks b) Every panchayat to have at least one small bank by 2019 c) Banks to be permitted to raise long - term funds to lend to infrastructure with minimum regulations d) Public sector banks need 2.40 lakh cr enquiries to conform to Basel -III norms by 2018 e) Banks capital to be raised through retail sale of shares while the Govt. to continue to hold majority in PSU banks 2. Which of the following Public Sector under takings are conferred the Navratna status by Department of Public Enterprises? a) Engineers India Limited (EIL) b) National Building Construction corporation Limited (NBCC) c) Antrix corporation Limited d) All of the above e) Only a and b 3. Which of the following banks has become the biggest employer in the private banking space with more than 72,000 employees in 2013-14? a) ICICI Bank b) HDFC c) Kotak Mahindra Bank d) Axis Bank e) None of these 4. CRR for non- scheduled urban co-operative banks (UCBs) increased to what percent of their total demanded and time liabilities recently? a) 3 percent b) 4 percent c) 4.5 percent d) 4.75 percent e) None of these 5. Punjab National Bank has launched ____ scheme for popularization of education among girls of Rural/ Semi urban areas. a) PNB -EDUCHILD b) PNB - SHIKSHA c) BALIKA - SHIKSHA d) 'PNB Ladli' e) None of these 6. The RBI started issuing its credit policy bi-monthly on the recommendation of which of the following committees? a) Shome committee b) Urjit patel committee c) HR Khan committee d) KC Chakra arty e) None of these 7. The operation of the following entities do not come under the purview of the RBI as of now, despite accepting deposits and giving loans? a) Regional Rural banks b) Cooperative credit societies c) Payments banks d) Non - Banking Financial companies e) Development banks 8. With respect to loans, a time period during the loan term when the borrower is not required to make any repayment, is termed as a) Provisioning b) Moratorium c) Sanction d) Limitation e) Probation 9. What is the initial minimum deposit required for opening a Basic Saving bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) with a bank? a) 200 b) 500 c) 700 d)1000 e) No initial deposit required 10. Which country agreed to provide a one- billion - Euro credit line to India over the next three years? a) UK b) Germany c) Switzerland d) France e) None of these 11. ARM loan means: a) Adjustable Rate Mortgage loan b) Adjustable Reverse Mortgage loan c) Adjustable Retail Mortgage loan d) None of the above e) Any of the above 12. Which of following agencies/ organization in India maintains the Micro finance development fund? a) SIDBI b) SBI c) NABARD d) PNB e) ICICI 13. RBI in regard to RTGS has decided that ___ a) RTGS would be accessible to all retail customers b) There would be no floor ceiling for routing transactions through RTGS c) Settlement of transactions of the clearing corporation of India and the stock market would be conducted through RTGS d) All of these e) None of these 14. As per KYC Policy, the list of terrorist organizations is supplied to the bank by the a) Government of India b) CIBIL c) IBA d) RBI e) All of these 15. Merchant banking in India is governed by ___ a) SEBI b) RBI c) IRDA d) Ministry of finance e) None of the above 16. If you wish to purchase US dollars to travel abroad, you will approach ___ a) Ministry of finance b) US embassy c) Any bank branch authorized for such activity d) RBI e) External affairs ministry. 17. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly known as ___ a) Investment banking b) Portfolio management c) Merchant banking d) Banc assurance e) None of these 18. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of ___ a) Commercial bills b) Foreign exchange c) Gold d) Government bonds e) None of these 19. The functions of the lead bank are performed by ___ a) SBI b) RBI c) Any bank d) A bank designed for this purpose e) None of these 20. The head office of the Punjab National Bank (PNB) is located in which of the following cities? a) Mumbai b) Amritsar c) New Delhi d) Chandigarh e) None o f these 21. Which of the following terms is NOT used in banking/ finance? a) Public Debt b) Plasma c) Joint venture d) Net demand and time liability e) Treasury bill 22. The Reserve Bank of India does NOT decide the ___ a) Rate of Repo and Reserve Repo b) Marginal standing Facility Rates c) Bank Rate d) Rate of Dearness Allowance for Government Employees e) Statutory Liquidity Ratio 23. Which of the following Mills have got Rs.14000 Cr interest free loans so far, as against Rs. 6000 Cr approved by central Government? a) Cash Starved Sugar Mills b) Sick Units of SME c) DBR Cotton Mills d) Suraj Cotton Mills e) Cash Starved Oil Mills 24. What is the amount of Accident Insurance Cover provided under Jan Dhan Yojana recently launched by the Prime Minister? a) Rs 1,00,000/- b) Rs 50,000/- c) Rs 30,000/- d) Rs 20,000/- e) None of the above 25. The Cooperative banks consist of a three - tier structure. Which of the following is not included in that structure? a) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) in the villages, b) Central Co-operative Banks at the district level (DCCBs) c) State Cooperative Banks at the state level (St CBs) d) Farmers service Cooperative Societies (FSCS) e) Only a, b and c 26. Which of the following banks are not insured by the DICGC? a) All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India b) Local area banks and regional rural banks c) Urban cooperative banks, functioning in States d) Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the DICGC e) All of the above 27. The security which is a claim on the government and is a secure financial instrument guarantees certainty of both capital and interest is called ___ a) Gilt-Edged Security b) Call Money c) Treasury Bills d) Certificate of Deposits e) All of the above 28. The minimum maturity period for Commercial Paper (CP) is _____ days. a) 14 b) 30 c) 45 d) 7 e) 365 29. NIXI stands for: a) National & International Exchange of India b) National Internet Exchange of India c) Notional Inter Exchange interest d) National and Intellectuals Exchange of India e) None of the above 30. Nomination facilities are applicable to which accounts? a) Deposit Accounts b) Articles in Safe Custody/ Deposit c) Locker Accounts d) Cash Credit Accounts e) a, b and c -
మేము గొప్ప ఎత్తుకు చేరతాము
Directions (Q 1-10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer. (Ignore punctuation errors if any.) 1. The view from (1)/ this apartment is (2)/ not nearly as spectacular as (3)/ the one from that mountain lodge.(4)/ No error (5) 2. Shakespeare's plays are different (1)/ from any other playwrights (2)/ of his era because they exhibit (3)/ an exceptional mastery of verse. (4)/ No error (5) 3. Neither an interest (1)/ in history nor (2)/ to be adept in a foreign language (3)/ is going to help you learn to sing. (4)/ No error (5) 4. I have never tried (1)/ to raise chickens. (2)/ Once I try (3)/ to raise hogs. (4)/ No error (5) 5. Ali shouted (1)/ in my ear. (2)/ I turned and (3)/ shouts right back. (4)/ No error (5) 6. I left home to (1)/ Sunday morning (2)/ to catch a flight (3)/ to Mumbai. (4)/ No error (5) 7. I tried (1)/ to interrupt (2)/ their conversation (3)/ but was told of. (4)/ No error (5) 8. At ten o'clock in the morning (1)/ I went to the beach (2)/ to catch fish (3)/ from my net. (4)/ No error (5) 9. I watch (1)/ Comedy Nights with Kapil (2)/ show last night, (3)/ then I watched C.I.D. program. (4)/ No error (5) 10. The effects of illiteracy (1)/ often negatively impact (2)/ a nation ability (3)/ to develop its human resources. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (Q. 11-20): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. Twitter ___ (11) become synonymous with communication today. Since 2006, this ___ (12) platform has grown from 100 obsessive ___ (13) to more than 100 million today - over 10 million of those in the U.K. alone. But how did such ___(14) radical transformation happen in just five years and what does it mean for business, politics and the Internet? Roof-top meetings and friendly colleagues ___ (15) to make Twitter's employees the ___ (16) in the country, according to a report. The micro blogging company received the highest rating from ___ (17) own workers in terms of corporate culture -___ (18) values. With access to some of the major players in this unique drama, columnist Nick Bilton chronicles the key figures ___ (19) helped build the company and ultimately struggled ___ (20) manage the influence and power they had been handed. 11. 1) had 2) has 3) have 4) is 5) was 12. 1) social 2) science 3) internet 4) wide 5) range 13. 1) use 2) user 3) uses 4) users 5) using 14. 1) an 2) the 3) a 4) for 5) and 15. 1) help 2) helped 3) helping 4) helps 5) will help 16. 1) happy 2) happiness 3) happier 4) happiest 5) more happy 17. 1) it is 2) it's 3) it 4) its 5) it was 18. 1) with 2) for 3) and 4) by 5) along 19. 1) who's 2) whose 3) who is 4) who was 5) who 20. 1) in 2) for 3) with 4) to 5) too Directions (Q. 21-24): Each question below has a blank/ blanks indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word from the five options for each blank/ blanks that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 21. Three days was simply not an ___ amount of time to complete ___ a lot of work. 1) Accept, much 2) Accepts, more 3) Accepting, many 4) Acceptable, such 5) Accepted, few 22. You don't need to be a ___ to see what the problem here is. 1) Smart 2) clever 3) Genius 4) Intelligent 5) Extraordinary 23. Make sure you read all the ___ carefully before starting your exam. 1) Institutions 2) Instructions 3) Investigations 4) Informations 5) Informally 24. Western countries have special schools for students with ___ disorders. 1) Mental 2) Menial 3) Manual 4) Manner 5) Mandate Directions (Q 25-33): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Character is destiny. Character is that on which the destiny of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of small character. We must have young men and women who look upon others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student life, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the ground at our feet is crumbling. When the very basis of our structure is shaky how can we reach the heights we have set before ourselves? We must all have humility. Here is a country which we are all interested in building up for whatever service we take up, we should not care for what we receive. We should know how much we can put into that service. That should be the principle which should animate our young men and women. Ours is a great country, we have had for centuries a great history. World nations look up at us with awe as we had many great leaders who brought recognition to our nation with their character. Even after repeated invasions by various intruders we could stand high and firm as we are a nation built on character. The whole of the East reflects our culture. 25. The fate of a nation is built on 1) People 2) Leaders 3) Politicians 4) Character 5) Intruders 26. We can reach great heights 1) If our character is built on a strong foundation of sterling qualities 2) If our character is built on a weak foundation of mean qualities 3) If our character is not built on a strong foundation of great heights 4) If our character is being built on a strength foundation of sterling qualities 5) If our character is built on a strong foundation of shaky qualities 27. As per our scriptures who play a vital role in moulding the destiny of our nation? 1) Learned men 2) Learned women 3) Literate people 4) Young men and women 5) Weaklings 28. The gist of the passage is about 1) The significance of men and women 2) The role played by youth 3) The invasions that are repeated 4) The importance of character formation in moulding the destiny of our nation 5) The importance of great leaders Directions (Q 29-31): Select the word that is most similar in meaning to given word. 29. DESTINY 1) Vacation 2) Avocation 3) Vaccination 4) Fortune 5) Hobby 30. CRUMBLING 1) Construct 2) Arrange 3) Collapse 4) Entangle 5) Mess 31. HUMILITY 1) Modesty 2) Arrogance 3) Tepidness 4) Timid 5) Pompous Directions: (Q 32-33): Select the word that is most opposite in meaning. 32. CARE 1) Concern 2) Worry 3) Trouble 4) Pain 5) Neglect 33. ANIMATE 1) Encourage 2) Enthuse 3) Promote 4) Dishearten 5) Support -
ఏ భాషలో సోర్స్ ప్రోగ్రాం రాస్తారు?
1. A small or intelligent device is socalled because it contains within it a: a) Computer b) Microcomputer c) Programmable d) Sensor e) Semi computer 2. A computer program that translates one program instructions at a time into machine language is called a/an: a) Interpreter b) CPU c) Compiler d) Simulator e) RAM 3. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which requires operator attention? a) Pixel b) Reverse video c) Touch screen d) Cursor e) Note pad 4. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alterna-tive computer jargon for it? a) Leech b) Squid c) Slug d) Glitch e) Gunk 5. Which of the following devices can be used to directly image pri-nted text? a) OCR b) OMR c) MICR d) OCMR e) MCQ 6. In which language is source program written? a) English b) Symbolic c) Temporary d) English US e) High level 7. Which of the following is required when more than one person uses a central computer at the same time? a) Terminal b) Light pen c) Digitizer d) Mouse e) None of the above 8. The first digital computer built with IC chips was known as: a) IBM 7090 b) Apple - 1 c) VAX-10 d) Dell-1 e) IBM System / 360 9. To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in colour, you would want to use a/n: a) RGB monitor b) Plotter c) Ink-jet printer d) Laser printer e) Joystick 10. The ALU of a computer nor-mally contains a number of high speed storage element called: a) Semiconductor memory b) Hard disks c) Magnetic disk d) All of the above e) Registers 11. Where can you find the hori-zontal split bar on MS Word screen? a) On the left of horizontal sc-roll bar b) On the right of horizontal scroll bar c) On the top of vertical scroll bar d) On the bottom of vertical scroll bar e) On the middle of horizontal scroll bar 12. What is the responsibility of the logical unit in the CPU of a computer? a) To produce result b) To compare numbers c) To control flow of information d)To do math's works e) All the above 13. Any method for controlling access to or use of memory is known: a) Memory map b) Memory protection c) Memory management d) Memory instruction e) Memory allocation 14. Which of the following is a way to access secondary memory? a) Random access memory b) Action method c) Transfer method d) Density method e) Call method 15. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which menu will you choose? a) Edit b) View c) Tools d) Review e) Format 16. A __________is a pre-designed document that already has coor-dinating fonts, a layout, and a background. a) guide b) model c) ruler d) template e) supervisor 17. Which one of the following input device is user-programmable? a) Dumb terminal b) Smart terminal c) VDT d) Intelligent terminal e) None of the above 18. Where as a computer mouse moves over the table surface, the trackball is: a) Stationary b) Difficult to move c) Dragged d) Moved in small stems e) All the above 19. Two dimensional arrays are also called: a) Tables arrays b)Matrix arrays c) Line arrays d) Only A & B e) A, B and C 20. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small silicon chip is called a(n): a) Workstation b) CPU c) Magnetic disk d) Integrated circuit e) RAM -
డాక్టర్ యొక్క అంచనా ఏమిటి
Model Questions Directions (Q.1-5): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. One of the major causes of illiteracy is ------- (1) and the subsequent lack of --------- (2) to reading and writing materials. Realistically, students who would have --------- (3) on to continue their education past the 5th year sometimes --------- (4) school in order to work on the farm or in a factory in order to -------- (5) with the family income. 1. 1) poor 2) purity 3) poverty 4) possible 5) confront 2. 1) excess 2) exceed 3) exclude 4) acces 5) actual 3. 1) goes 2) want 3) went 4) going 5) gone 4. 1) quit 2) fit 3) bet 4) boast 5) beat 5. 1) assist 2) assistant 3) assists 4) assert 5) tell Directions (Q.6-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Many artists lived in the Greenwich Village area of New York. Two young women named Sue and Johnsy shared a studio apart-ment at the top of a three-story building. Johnsy's real name was Joanna. In November, a cold, unseen stranger came to visit the city. This disease, pneumonia, killed many people. Johnsy lay on her bed, hardly moving. She looked through the small window. She could see the side of the brick house next to her building. One morning, a doctor examined Johnsy and took her temperature. Then he spoke with Sue in another room. "She has one chance in - let us say ten," he said. After the doctor had gone, Sue went into the workroom and cried. Then she went to Johnsy's room with her drawing board, whistling ragtime. Johnsy lay with her face toward the window. Sue stopped whistling, thinking she was asleep. She began making a pen and ink drawing for a story in a magazine. Young artists must work their way to "Art" by making pictures for magazine stories. Sue heard a low sound, several times repeated. She went quickly to the bedside. Johnsy's eyes were open wide. She was looking out the window and counting - counting backward. Sue looked out the window. What was there to count? There was only an empty yard and the blank side of the house seven meters away. An old ivy vine, going bad at the roots, climbed half way up the wall. The cold breath of autumn had stricken leaves from the plant until its branches, almost bare, hung on the bricks. "What is it, dear?" asked Sue. "Six," said Johnsy, qui-etly. "They're falling faster now. Three days ago there were almost a hundred. It made my head hurt to count them. But now it's easy. There goes another one. There are only five left now." "Five what, dear?" asked Sue. "Leaves on the plant. When the last one falls I must go, too. I've known that for three days. Didn't the doctor tell you?" "Oh, I never heard of such a thing," said Sue. "What have old ivy leaves to do with your getting well? And you used to love that vine. Don't be silly. Why, the doctor told me this morning that your chances for getting well real soon were - let's see exactly what he said - he said the chances were ten to one! Try to eat some soup now. And, let me go back to my drawing, so I can sell it to the magazine and buy food and wine for us." 6. The unseen stranger referred in the passage is ___ 1) Sue 2) Joanna 3) Johnsy 4) Doctor 5) Disease 7. What was doctor's prediction? 1) Sue will survive 2) Johnsy will survive 3) The chances of recovery are high 4) The chances of Joanna's getting well are less 5) That she is having a boy friend 8. What bothered Johnsy? 1) The ivy leaves 2) Sue's friendship 3) The doctor's treatment 4) The food 5) Her desire to paint 9. Joanna was ____ 1) optimistic 2) pessimistic 3) opportunist 4) weird 5) wild Directions (Q.10-12): Each of the following questions contains a main word in capital letters followed by five words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the main word in capital letters. 10. STRANGER 1) Alien 2) Friend 3) Acquaintance 4) Neighbor 5) Well known 11. EXAMINE 1) Refuse 2) Reject 3) Fool proof 4) Scrutinize 5) Consider 12. SOUND 1) Volume 2) Resonance 3) Guide 4) Dimension 5) Channel Directions (Q.13-15): Each of the following questions contains a main word in capital letters followed by five words. Select the word that is most opposite in meaning to the main word in capital letters. 13. QUICKLY 1) Fast 2) Rapid 3) Swift 4) Slowly 5) Jiffy 14. BARE 1) Naked 2) Exposed 3) Covered 4) Stripped 5) Enclosed 15. REPEATED 1) Rare 2) Frequent 3) Continuous 4) Regular 5) Numerous Directions (Q.16-26): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 16. Circumstances were so pathetic (1)/ that they will not be (2)/ able to meet (3)/ the assign target. (4)/ No error (5) 17. Farmers must be ensured (1)/ that loans are given (2)/ by the banks (3)/ to the agricultural sector. (4)/ No error (5) 18. The government (1)/ will anno-unced (2)/ several initiatives (3)/ beneficial to factory workers. (4)/ No error (5) 19. The committee meeting (1)/ to discuss the details (2)/ of the proposal (3)/ will yet been decided. (4)/ No error (5) 20. Owing to the heavy rains (1)/ the multi-storey office building (2)/ were badly damaged (3)/ and collapsed. (4)/ No error (5) 21. Many customers (1)/ prefer a bank (2)/ which are located (3)/ near their homes. (4)/ No error (5) 22. The metro rail authorities (1)/ have decided to call a meeting (2)/ next week to assess the causes of (3)/ frequently delays in its project. (4)/ No error (5) 23. After graduating (1)/ from college (2)/ he received a job offer (3)/ from a reputation company. (4)/ No error (5) 24. One of the important lessons he taught me (1)/ is to save (2)/ at least twenty five per cent (3)/ of my gross income. (4)/ No error (5) 25. Due to financial crisis (1)/ the prices of essential commodities (2)/ has rising sharply (3)/ over the past few months. (4)/ No error (5) 26. We have received many (1)/ of the letters from farmers (2)/ asking us to extend (3)/ the deadline to repay their loans. (4)/ No error (5) -
కొత్త లోక్ సభ డిప్యూటీ స్పీకర్?
1. The Prime Minister approved the constitution of an Expenditure Management Commission (EM- C) in August 2014. Who will head the Commission? 1) Bimal Jalan 2) Sumit Bose 3) R.S. Gujral 4) Subir Gokarn 5) Anand Sinha 2. The Reserve Bank of India has proposed to create which of the following posts in the rank of Deputy Governor? 1) Chief Executive Officer 2) Chief Operating Officer 3) Chief Economic Officer 4) Chief Technology Officer 5) Chief Information Officer 3. Which Indian-origin mathe- matician is one of the four winners of the Fields Medal in August 2014? 1) Akshay Venkatesh 2) Bhama Srinivasan 3) Manjul Bhargava 4) Ramdorai Sujatha 5) Kannan Soundararajan 4. Who was unanimously elected as the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha on August 13, 2014? 1) P. Radhakrishnan 2) R. Gopalakrishnan 3) V. Pannerselvam 4) M. Thambidurai 5) P.R. Senthilnathan 5. Miroslav Klose, the all-time wo-rld cup top scorer, announced his retirement from international fo-otball on August 11, 2014. He pl-ayed 137 international matches for which of the following countries? 1) Poland 2) Portugal 3) Italy 4) Spain 5) Germany 6. Maryam Mirzakhani became the first woman to win the prestigious Fields Medal, viewed as the Nobel Prize of Mathematics. She was born in? 1) Turkey 2) Saudi Arabia 3) Iran 4) Iraq 5) Libya 7. Which city hosted the International Congress of Mathematicians (ICM) in August 2014? 1) Oslo 2) Seoul 3) Stockholm 4) Tokyo 5) Singapore 8. Subhash Khot, an Indian-American mathematician, was given which of the following prizes in August 2014? 1) Abel Prize 2) Carl Friedrich Gauss Prize 3) Chern Medal 4) Leelavati Prize 5) Rolf Nevanlinna Prize 9. Jens Stoltenberg has been appointed the next Secretary General of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO). He is the former Prime Minister of which of the following countries? (He will succeed Anders Fogh Rasmussen on October 1, 2014) 1) Canada 2) Belgium 3) Netherlands 4) Luxembourg 5) Norway 10. Who was appointed the interim working president of the BCCI for Indian Premier League 7 in March 2014? 1) Kirti Azad 2) Sourav Ganguly 3) Sunil Gavaskar 4) Mohinder Amarnath 5) Kapil Dev 11. Michelle Bachelet was sworn in as the President of which of the following countries in March 2014? 1) Uruguay 2) Paraguay 3) Chile 4) Argentina 5) Peru 12. The eleventh Paralympic Winter Games were held in which of the following cities from 7-16 March, 2014? 1) Salzburg 2) Sochi 3) Pyeongchang 4) Vancouver 5) Lillehammer 13. Who is the author of the book "99: Unforgettable Fiction, Non-fiction, Poetry & Humor" which has been reprinted recently? 1) Nirad C. Chaudhuri 2) Raj Thapar 3) Khushwant Singh 4) Gerald Martin 5) Gabriel Garcia Marquez 14. With 80 medals, 30 of them being gold, which country won the most medals during the Paralympic Winter Games in March 2014? 1) Australia 2) China 3) Great Britain 4) Russia 5) USA 15. Former Delhi Chief Minister Sheila Dikshit assumed office as the Governor of which of the following States on March 11, 2014? 1) Mizoram 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Tripura 4) Sikkim 5) Kerala 16. On March 4, 2014 which of the following became the first State in India to observe Child Protection Day? 1) Haryana 2) Assam 3) Gujarat 4) Odisha 5) Himachal Pradesh 17. The United Nations declared which of the following days as Universal Children's Day? 1) November 14 2) November 20 3) December 10 4) December 20 5) October 3 18. Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Financial Planning Standards Board India (FPSB) in March 2014? 1) Ranjeet S. Mudholkar 2) Cyril Shroff 3) B.N. Srikrishna 4) Milind Barve 5) P. Vijaya Bhaskar 19. Who was honored with the GD Birla Award for Scientific Re-search for 2013 in March 2014? 1) Tapas Kumar Kundu 2) Raghavan Varadarajan 3) Ashoke Sen 4) R.A. Mashelkar 5) Rajesh Gopakumar 20. The Harish-Chandra Research Institute is an institution dedi-cated to research in Mathematics and theoretical Physics. It is located in? 1) Kolkata 2) Allahabad 3) Nagpur 4) Lucknow 5) Kanpur 21. Which Hindi author was selected for Saraswati Samman 2013 for his book 'Dhool Paudho Par'? (He is the second Hindi author to receive the honor) 1) Govind Mishra 2) Kedarnath Singh 3) Amar Kant 4) Srilal Shukla 5) Viswanath Tripathi 22. In 1991, who became the first Hindi author to receive the Saraswati Samman? 1) Ram Vilas Sharma 2) Harivamsh Rai Bachchan 3) Girija Kumar Mathur 4) Kedarnath Singh 5) Giriraj Kishore 23. Sumith Nakandala of Sri Lanka has been appointed as the first Secretary General of? 1) ASEAN 2) SAARC 3) BIMSTEC 4) Asian Clearing Union 5) Mekong-Ganga Cooperation 24. Which of the following state-ments about BIMSTEC is not correct? 1) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) was established in 1997. 2) It consists of seven countries-India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Thailand. 3) BIMSTEC provides a unique link between South Asia and South East Asia. 4) The first and second BIM STEC Summits were held in Bangkok (2004) and New Delhi (2008). 5) BIMSTEC's permanent secre- tariat will be established in New Delhi. 25. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is being established in the premises of National Cen-tre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) in? 1) Bangalore 2) New Delhi 3) Hyderabad 4) Faridabad 5) Noida 26. The ICC Under 19 Cricket world cup will be played in 2016 in? 1) India 2) Sri Lanka 3) Bangladesh 4) UAE 5) Singapore 27. Which country won the Asia Cup Cricket in Mirpur, Bangladesh on March 8, 2014? 1) Sri Lanka 2) Pakistan 3) India 4) Bangladesh 5) Afghanistan 28. Who won the Player of the Tour-nament at the 2014 Asia Cup? 1) Lasith Malinga 2) Fawad Alam 3) Misbah ul Haq 4) Lahiru Thirimanne 5) Mahela Jayewardene 29. The A.P. Reorganisation Bill, 2014 got the Presidential assent on? 1) February 18, 2014 2) February 20, 2014 3) March 1, 2014 4) March 20, 2014 5) March 18, 2014 30. Who won 'Cricketer of the Generation' award at the ESPN-Cricinfo Award ceremony on March 14, 2014? 1) Shane Warne 2) Jacques Kallis 3) Brian Lara 4) Tendulkar 5) Ponting 31. A Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account facility is available? 1) To all individuals irrespective of their background 2) To all individuals from BPL families only 3) Only to SCs/STs 4) Only to individuals from the minority communities 5) Only to individuals from weaker sections of the society 32. The home loans with compara-tively low interest rates in the in-itial years but higher in the sub-sequent years are known as the? 1) Teaser rates 2) Cheater rates 3) Twister rates 4) Cheaper rates 5) Trickster rates 33. Which of the following nations is not a member of SAARC? 1) Nepal 2) Mauritius 3) Bhutan 4) Afghanistan 5) Maldives 34. The RBI policy rate which is purely an indicative rate used to signal long-term outlook on interest rates is? 1) Bank rate 2) Repo rate 3) Call Money rate 4) Reverse repo rate 5) None of these 35. The amount specified as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is held in cash and parked with? 1) SIDBI 2) IDBI 3) RBI 4) SBI 5) RIDF -
జాతీయం బ్యాంకు మరొక పేరు?
1. The financial year of RBI is from: a) 1st January to 31st December b) 1st July to 30th June c) 1st October to 30th September d) 1st April to 31st March e) None of these 2. According to third Bi-Monthly Monetary Policy, RBI reduced SLR by 50 basic points. Accordingly the SLR w.e.f. 9th August 2014 is: a) 20.5% b) 5% c) 22% d) 22.5% e) 4% 3. Which of the following banks has launched 'Tiny Cards' with biometric identification to expand the coverage of banking services in rural parts of the country? a) ICICI bank b) NABARD c) State Bank of India d) Bank of India e) None of these 4. Government policy to raise in-come by additional taxes and allocation of expenditure is called: a) Expenditure policy b) Monetary policy c) Income policy d) Fiscal policy e) None of these 5. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are NOT correct with respect to the Banking Ombud-sman Scheme implemented in India? a) This scheme was introduced under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995 b) The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the RBI to redress customer complaints against deficiency banking services c) All Schedule Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co - operative Banks are covered under the scheme d) All of the above e) None of these 6. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalized bank is ____ a) RBI b) NABARD c) LIC d) Govt. of India e) IBA 7. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of Debit Card? a) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery to the proposed Card H b) No interest earning for banks c) Works like a normal withdrawal d) Can be used at ATM and POS e) 180 days credit is given to the card holder 8. Which of the following is not a type of Cheque? a) Crossed cheque b) Blank cheque c) Speed cheque d) Bearer cheque e) Order cheque 9. Which of the following Acts helps a bank in its day to day activities? a) Workmen competition Act b) Negotiable Instruments Act c) Industrial Dispute Act d) Consumer Protect Act e) NRI Act 10. 'Federal Reserve' is the Central Bank of which of the following countries? a) Russia b) Britain c) Canada d) Australia e) USA 11. A nationalized bank is also called by the following name: a) Private Sector Bank b) Self Help Group c) Grameena Bank d) Public Sector Bank e) None of these 12. Banks in India are regulated under ___ a) Companies Act, 1956 b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 d) Special powers conferred on the RBI e) None of these 13. Banking sector fall under which of the following? a) Agricultural Sector b) Industrial Sector c) Manufacturing Sector d) Service Sector e) Small Scale Sector 14. Loans of very small amounts given to low income groups is called ____ a) Cash Credit b) Micro Credit c) Simple overdraft d) No frills loans e) Rural credit 15. As per the new guidelines issued by the RBI, which of the following categories will be given relaxation in KYC norms while opening bank account and borrowing from the banks? A) Marginal Farmers b) Daily labourers c) Self help groups d) All of the above e) None of these 16. Name the first bank in the country to launch the reverse mortgage scheme? a) Bank of Baroda b) Punjab National Bank c) Canara Bank d) SBI e) None of these 17. Banks have started opening 'No Frill' accounts recently in order to help which of the following sections of customers? a) Weaker section of society b) High - value customers c) Students d) Loan - seekers who were not able to repay their loans taken earlier e) None of these 18. Digital banking means: a) Banking with calculators b) Banking with digital instrument c) Internet banking and Tele banking d) Export finance e) None of these 19. The banking system in India has mainly two types of Credit Control systems - quantitative and qualitative. Which of the following do(es) not fall under quantitative credit control? a) Bank Rate b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) c) Margin requirement d) All of the above e) None of these 20. Which of the following Rates/ Ratios is not covered under the Monetary and Credit policy of RBI? a) Bank rate b) Repo rate c) Cash reserve ratio d) Reserve repo rate e) Exchange rate of foreign currencies 21. The new Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for the banks commonly known as ___ a) Credit policy b) KYC c) Monetary Policy d) Basel Accord e) None of these 22. Which of the following is not a banking term? a) Letter of Guarantee b) RTGS c) CBS d) Speed Clearing e) Speed Post 23. The RBI asked banks to spell out their policy, procedures and size of the business on which of the following aspects of banking? a) On - shore banking b) Off - shore banking c) Investments in secondary market d) Wealth management e) None of these 24. What is the expanded form of ECS as used in banking sector? a) Effective Clearing System b) Electronic Confirmation System c) Electronic Clearing Service d) Enabled Clearing System e) None of these 25. Normally used deposit accounts of banks by customers are ____ a) Current Accounts, Electricity Accounts and Insurance Premium Accounts b) Current Accounts, Post office Savings Bank Accounts and Term Deposit Accounts c) Loan Accounts, Savings Bank Accounts and Term Deposit Accounts d) Current Accounts, Savings Bank Accounts and Term Deposit Accounts e) Current Bill KEY 1) b; 2) c; 3) c; 4) d; 5) e; 6) d; 7) e; 8) c; 9) b; 10) e; 11) d; 12) b; 13) d; 14) b; 15) c; 16) b; 17) c; 18) c; 19) c; 20) e; 21) d; 22) e; 23) d; 24) c; 25) d. -
అతని సందేహం ఏమిటి?
MODEL QUESTIONS Directions (Q.1-5): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then ans-wer the questions given below them. A. For instance, if we measure the room temperature continuously and plot its graph with time on X-axis and temperature on the Y-axis, we get a continuous wave-form, which is an analog signal. Analog is always continuous. B. The absence or presence of something can be used to plot a digital signal. C. An analog signal is a conti-nuously varying signal, similar to a sinusoidal waveform. D. Any signal can be classified into one of the two types: analog and digital. E. In contrast, a digital signal takes the form of pulses, where we have something or nothing. 1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after re-arrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E 2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after re-arrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E 3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after re-arrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E 4. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after re-arrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E 5. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after re-arrangement? 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E Directions (Q.6-15): Each sentence is given in five parts, read to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in any part. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) 6. We have received many (1)/ of the letters from customers (2)/ asking us to extend (3)/ the deadline to repay their loans. (4)/ No error (5) 7. Since I had lived there (1)/ for many years the villagers (2)/ were very comfortable talked (3)/ to me about their problems. (4)/ No error (5) 8. We have been under (1)/ a lot of pressure to (2)/ open fifty new stores (3)/ by the ending of the year. (4)/ No error (5) 9. The company is in debt (1)/ and has been unable (2)/ to pay their employees' salaries (3)/ for the past six months. (4)/ No error (5) 10. This is turned out to be (1)/ one of our most successful projects (2)/ and we have made quite (3)/ a large profit from it. (4)/ No error (5) 11. Senior citizens prefer (1)/ banks which (2)/ branches are located (3)/ near their homes. (4)/ No error (5) 12. We shall be calling a meeting (1)/ next week to assess (2)/ the causes of frequently (3)/ delays in infrastructure projects. (4)/ No error (5) 13. After graduating from college (1)/ having an engineering degree (2)/ he received a job offer (3)/ from a reputed company. (4)/ No error (5) 14. One of the important lesson (1)/ he taught me was to save (2)/ at least thirty per cent (3)/ of my gross income. (4)/ No error (5) 15. Due to the financial crisis (1)/ the price of food grains (2)/ has risen sharply (3)/ over the past few months. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (Q.16-20): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction is required', mark (5) as the answer. 16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them. 1) targeted assignment 2) assigned target 3) assigning of target 4) target assigned 5) No correction required 17. Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans are given to the agricultural sector. 1) are ensured 2) have to ensure 3) being ensured 4) should be ensured 5) No correction required 18. The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers. 1) beneficial 2) for benefiting to 3) which will benefit 4) benefited to 5) No correction required 19. A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided. 1) will be yet decided 2) is been decided yet 3) have not been still decided 4) is not yet been decided 5) No correction required 20. With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed. 1) Owing to the heavy rains 2) Because of raining heavily 3) Since heavily it rained 4) In raining heavily 5) No correction required Directions (Q. 21-25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush? I don't know how it is, but I never do know whether I've packed my toothbrush. My tooth-brush is a thing that haunts me when I'm travelling and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven't packed it and wake up in a cold per-spiration and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped up in my pocket handkerchief. 21. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was ___ 1) unpleasant 2) sad 3) fantastic 4) amusing 5) distributing 22. What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling? 1) Going to railway station 2) Forgetting the toothbrush 3) Packing his bag 4) Bad dreams 5) Sleeping 23. His toothbrush is finally ___ 1) in his bag 2) in his bed 3) in his handkerchief 4) lost 5) in his purse 24. What is the doubt he got? 1) About his packing 2) Regarding his boots 3) Regarding his clothes 4) Regarding his ticket 5) Whether he packed his toothbrush or not 25. He opened the bag and packed his __ 1) boots 2) luggage 3) socks 4) comb 5) toothbrush Directions (Q. 26-28): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 26. Horrible 1) Pleasant 2) Terrible 3) Calm 4) Serene 5) Pure 27. Haunt 1) Bother 2) Meager 3) Broader 4) Scanty 5) Doubt 28. Misery 1) Happy 2) Joyous 3) Melancholy 4) Jubilant 5) Merry Directions (Q. 29-30): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 29. Wake 1) Rouse 2) Arouse 3) Awake 4) Asleep 5) Alert 30. Wrap 1) Drape 2) Enclose 3) Bind 4) Envelop 5) Expose -
మాడ్యులేటర్ మార్చే పరికరం.?
1. What is required when more than one person uses a central computer at the same time? a) Light pen b) Mouse c) Digitizer d) Terminal e) None of the above 2. One nibble is equal to ___ a) 4 bits b) 8 bits c) 16 bits d) 32bits e) None of the above 3. Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory? a) Non-volatile b) Permanent c) Control unit d) Temporary e) None of the above 4. A picture, map or graphics or image that can be used in a document is known as ___ a) Hypertext b) Clipboard c) Object d) Drag drop e) None of these 5. The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a document is called: a) Double spacing b) Line spacing c) Single space d) Vertical spacing e) None of these 6. Which of the following is a smallest dot that can be uniquely drawn on a computer screen? a) Bexel b) Computer dot c) Cursor d) Pixel e) None of these 7. _____means to enlarge a window to its maximum area so that it will fill entire desktop. a) Maximise b) Zoom c) Enlarge d) Extend e) None of these 8. The computer's capability of distinguishing spoken words is called ___ a) voice analysis b) speech acknowledgement c) voice recognition d) speech interpretation e) none of these 9. Which of the following is the process of getting access to the computer? a) Sign up b) Log in c) Log off d) Enter e) None of these 10. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it, is called a ____ a) program b) command c) user response d) processor e) None of these 11. The full step wise process of closing a computer is called _____ a) Hibernating b) Closing c) Log off d) Shut down e) None of these 12. Which key combination is used for special tasks? a) Insert, Delete b) Ctrl, Shift c) Left Arrow, Right Arrow d) Page up, Page Down e) None of These 13. ____ allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail. a) TCP/ IP b) Ethernet c) WAP d) Token ring e) Internet 14. The _____ enables you to simultaneously keep multiple Web pages open in one browser window. a) Tab box b) Pop-up helper c) Tab row d) Address bar e) None of these 15. The most important or powe-rful computer in a typical network is ____ a) Desktop b) Network client c) Network server d) Network station e) None of these 16. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into ____ a) Websites b) Information c) Programs d) Objects e) None of these 17. Grouping and processing all of a firm's transactions at one time is called ___ a) a database management sy-stem b) a real-time system c) an on-line system d) batch processing e) None of these 18. Which of the following is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user? a) Interrupt request b) Forward DNS lookup c) Data-Link layer d) Common gateway interface e) None of these 19. What is the shortcut key to “Undo” the last action in a document? a) Ctrl + X b) Ctrl + Y c) Ctrl + U d) Ctrl + N e) Ctrl + Z 20. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler: a) Syntax errors b) Semantic errors c) Logic errors d) System errors e) All of the above 21. Pick out the wrong definition. a) COBOL : A language used for business data processing b) CPU: Is the brain of com-puter c) LAN: Is used in local areas d) FORTRAN: Is used for logical processing e) None of these 22. Modulator is a device that converts: a) Digital signal into Ana log signal b) Ana log signal into digital signal c) Both A and B d) Sometimes only A and B e) None of the above 23. What is the capacity of a 3.5” Floppy Disk? a) 360 KB b) 720 KB c) 1.2 MB d) 1.44 MB e) 1.8 MB 24. Which command of MS-DOS is used to copy only files that have been modified on or after the date you specify? a) XCOPY/D : date b) COPY/D : date c) COPY/M d) XCOPY/V e) None of the above 25. If the processor of a computer does not have a direct and unassisted access to data items, these items are said to be ___ a) Offline b) Remote c) Disconnected d) Detached e) None of the above 26. The input and output devices are located away from the central computer facility in which particular type of processing? a) Time sharing b) Batch processing c) Interactive mode d) Real time processing e) None of the above 27. What is the minimum number of operations required, for a microprocessor with 8 data pins, to read a 32-bit word? a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 e) 16 28. Which of the following is a special purpose language used to describe to a computer's operating system? a) LOGO b) APL c) ICU d) CORAL e) ICL 29. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what has to be done, is ___ a) Operation code b) Address c) Locator d) Flip-Flop e) None of the above 30. A system program that sets up an executable program in main memory ready for execution: a) Assembler b) Linker c) Loader d) Compiler e) None of the above 31. Which of the following are loaded into main memory when the computer is booted? a) External command in-structions b) Internal command instr-uctions c) Utility programs d) Word processing instructions e) None of the above 32. In which addressing mode the contents of a register specified in the instruction are first decremented and then these contents are used as the effective address of the operands? a) Index addressing b) Indirect addressing c) Auto increment d) Auto decrement e) None of the above 33. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up? a) ROM BIOS b) CPU c) boot.ini d) CONFIG.SYS e) None of the above 34. You were installing an appli-cation in Windows 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do? a) Press alt + Ctrl + delete, twice b) Press alt + Ctrl + delete and end task c) Press the reset button on the computer d) Turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk e) None of the above 35. Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the file. a) File structure b) Records c) Fields d) Database e) None of the above 36. In a ___ a parent record type can be linked to one or more "child" record types, but a child record type can have only one parent. a) Network database b) Relational database c) Distributed database d) Hierarchical database e) None of the above 37. In the accompanying figure, the _____ is a special toolbar that displays a series of names, each of which represents a list of commands that can be used to perform tasks. a) Scroll bar b) Status bar c) Title bar d) Menu bar e) None of these 38. When the Language bar is _____, it means that you do not see it on the screen but it will be displayed the next time you start your computer. a) Restored b) Hidden c) Minimized d) Closed e) All of the above 39. What is the name of the memory card which is conceptually related to the smart card but is similar to the video disk? a) Laser card b) Master card c) Visa d) Optical card e) None of the above 40. Which of the following is not an alternative name for primary memory? a) Main memory b) Primary storage c) Internal storage d) Mass storage e) None of the above 41. In virtual storage, program segments stored on disk during processing are called: a) Tracks b) Blocks c) Pages d) Sectors e) None of the above 42. Which kind of devices allows the user to add components and ca-pabilities to a computer system? a) System boards b) Storage devices c) Input devices d) Output devices e) Expansion slots KEY 1) d; 2) a; 3) d; 4) c; 5) b; 6) d; 7) a; 8) c; 9) b; 10) a; 11) d; 12) b; 13) c; 14) c; 15) c; 16) b; 17) d; 18) d; 19) e; 20) a; 21) d; 22) c; 23) d; 24) a; 25) a; 26) b; 27) c; 28) e; 29) a; 30) c; 31) b; 32) d; 33) a; 34) d; 35) a; 36) d; 37) d; 38) b; 39) a; 40) d; 41) c; 42) e. K.V. Gnana Kumar Director, DBS, Hyderabad -
మార్కెటింగ్ సర్వే
1. The performance of a sales person depends on ____ a) Ebility and willingness of the sales person b) Incentives paid c) Size of the sales team d) Team leader's attitude e) His aggressive nature 2. Service Marketing is resorted to in ____ a) All MNCs b) All production houses c) Industrial units d) Insurance companies and banks e) None of the above 3. Market Information means: a) Pamphlets b) Newsletters c) Word of mouth (WOM) - publicity d) Regional Advertisements e) Viral marketing 4. Aggressive marketing is necessitated due to: a) Globalization b) Increased competition c) Increased production d) Increased job opportunities e) Increased staff 5. SME means ____ a) Selling and marketing Employees b) Sales and Merges of Entities c) Small and Micro Entities d) Small and Medium Enter- prises e) Sales Performance Measure-ment Program 6. In 4P for marketing, the place relates to which aspects? a) Distribution b) Production c) Transportation d) a, b and c e) b and c 7. Delivery channels means ___ a) place from where the products are sold b) courier service c) distribution agencies d) delivery time e) offsite bank 8. A call in marketing terms means ___ a) a newly introduced product b) territory allocation for sales persons c) a call center d) a sales meeting e) to visit a Prospect 9. Find out the incorrect sentence from the following. a) KYC norms are not applicable for opening of Current Account. b) Education Loans can be granted to girl students at concessional rate of interest. c) Home loans are sanctioned as Term Loans. d) NRI customers are profitable customers. e) Online marketing is very costly. 10. What is the meaning of the term 'Load' in purchase or sale of securities? a) Log of wood b) Fee charged while buying or selling the units of a fund c) Share price at the time of buying d) Stamp duty e) Fund value 11. Market size also means ____ a) Marketing planning b) Market pricing c) Market space d) Market distribution e) None of the above 12. Which of the following is most relevant when there is fall in the market share? a) Sales have gone up b) Profit has gone up c) Prices are erratic d) Competition has increased e) Business is wound up 13. To 'Close a call' means ____ a) To end the conversation b) To put the phone down c) To close the doors d) To clinch the sale e) To close the business 14. A marketing survey is required for: a) Deciding marketing strategies b) Deciding product strategies c) Deciding pricing strategies d) Understanding the market pulse e) All of the above 15. Telemarketing means ____ a) Selling Telephones b) Sending SMS messages c) Chatting on the phone d) Marketing through phone calls e) Marketing in person 16. A safe Deposit Locker can be canvassed among: a) All existing account holders b) Persons below poverty line c) Students d) Jewelers e) ATM Cardholders 17. Marketing in banks has been necessitated due to: a) Globalization b) Excess staff c) Nationalization of banks d) Complacency among the staff e) Poor customer services 18. Which of the following additional tools are included in the marketing mix for services? a) People b) Physical evidence c) Process d) a, b and c e) a and b 19. What is the meaning of 'Cross s- selling'? a) Selling to enemies b) Selling new products c) Reversal of a sale d) Selling other products to exis-ting customers e) Public relations 20. Market space means _____ a) Place where goods are sold b) Trade fairs and meals c) Road shows d) Scope available for selling e) Competition 21. The target group for a Car loans: a) A High Income Individuals b) All car dealers c) All students d) All BPL persons e) Blind persons 22. The leads for a Car Loans can be got from ___ a) Car Manufacturing Compa- nies b) Car dealers c) Car owners d) Car mechanics e) Bank Office Staff 23. The target Group for Credit Cards is: a) Existing cardholders b) All graduates c) All minors d) Individuals who have regular source of income e) All of the above 24. Delivery channels other than bank counters are _____ a) ATM's b) Internet Banking c) Mobile Banking d) Tele Banking e) All of the above 25. Indirect Marketing means ____ a) Marketing by non - sales persons b) Market survey c) Market Research d) Advertisements e) All of the above 26. Effective Bank Marketing requires _____ a) Proper pricing b) Customized products c) Simple procedures d) Market research e) All of the above 27. The two components of a marketing strategy are: a) Marketing objectives and promotion b) Marketing mix and marketing objectives c) Target market and marketing mix d) Target markets and promotions e) Calling the prospective customers daily and sending persons personally to contact them 28. The marketing mix of an organization include product, price, promotion and ___ a) Packaging b) Premiums c) Place d) Purchasing e) Popularity 29. Which of the following can't be a market situation? a) One seller many buyers b) Many sellers and many buyers c) Few sellers and many buyers d) Many sellers and many buyers e) None of these 30. What type of competitive structure exists when a firm produces a product that has no close substitutes? a) Monopoly b) Oligopoly c) Monopolistic Competition d) Perfect competition e) Mixed competition 31. In terms of consumer demand and spending behavior, marketers are most interested in: a) Wealth b) Consumer Credit c) Disposable income d) Pretax income e) None of these 32. Individuals and business organization that buy finished and resell them to make profit without changing the physical characteristics of the product as classified as: a) Reseller markets b) Institutional markets c) Producer market d) Government market e) Open market 33. Market ____ is the process of identifying groups of customers with basically similar wants, needs, preference or buying behaviors a) Development b) Positioning c) Segmentation d) Targeting e) None of these 34. Marketing information system is concerned with information relating to which of the following? a) Customers b) Channel intermediaries c) Sales persons d) a, b and c e) b and c 35. Which of the following is not a part of the promotion process in marketing? a) Persuasion b) Information c) Reminding d) Reinforcing e) Manufacturing quality product KEY 1) a 2) d 3) c 4) b 5) d 6) a 7) c 8) e 9) e 10) b 11) c 12) d 13) d 14) e 15) d 16) a 17) a 18) d 19) d 20) d 21) a 22) b 23) d 24) e 25) d 26) e 27) c 28) c 29) e 30) a 31) c 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) e -
Which time is mentioned in the passage?
Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in BOLD to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. What needs to be set right is our approach to work? It is a common sight in our country of employees reporting for duty on time and at the same time doing little work. Fortunate are those employers wherein employees at least come on time in many cases it is reported that they often come according to their convenience as they believe in the saying 'Indian standard time'. It is a known fact that not every minute they spend in the office is spent valuably. If an assessment is made of time they spent in gossiping, drinking tea, eating "pan" and smoking cigarettes, it will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is negligible. The problem is the standard which the leadership in administration sets for the staff. Forget the ministers because they mix politics and administration. What do top bureaucrats do? What do the below down officials do? Who are setting the paradigm? The administration set up remains week mainly because the employees do not have the right example to follow and they are more concerned about being in the good books of the bosses than doing work. They simply adapt the rule that boss is always right. Those of few who do not follow this face the wrath of the officials. This has left the few who are workaholics to be lackadaisical towards their work. 1. According to the writer, the administration in India 1) is by and large effective 2) is very strict and firm 3) is affected by red tape 4) is more or less ineffective 5) is effective only sometimes 2. The leadership in administration: 1) Sets a fine example to the employees 2) Is of a reasonably high standard 3) Is composed of idealists 4) Is of a very poor standard 5) Sets deadlines for the employees 3. The central idea of passage could be best expressed by the following: 1) The employee outlook towards work is justified 2) The employee must change their outlook towards work 3) The employees would never change their work culture 4) The employer must change 5) The employer-employee relationship is far from healthy 4. The employees in our country 1) are quite punctual but not duty conscious 2) are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work 3) are somewhat lazy but good natured 4) are not very highly qualified 5) are duty bound 5. Administration will have an impact of politics because of whom? 1) Employee 2) Employer 3) Staff 4) Politicians 5) Management 6. Who are setting the paradigm? 1) Employee & Employer 2) Employer & Bureaucrats 3) Bureaucrats, Officials & Politicians 4) Politicians & Employer 5) Officials & Bureaucrats 7. 'To be in the good books' means 1) They are pleased with you 2) You are pleased with 3) You are pleasing 4) You are pleased with your boss 5) Officials are pleasing 8. What is the simple rule followed by many? 1) Do your work 2) Always come late 3) Boss is always right 4) Officials are examples 5) Never be late 9. Which time is mentioned in the passage? 1) GMT 2) IST 3) PM 4) AM 5) FN 10. The few who are sincere will also develop an attitude of: 1) Taking the things seriously 2) Too much worried about the work 3) Not bothered about what they are doing 4) Not worried at all 5) Develop an easy going way Directions (Q. 11-13): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 11. Assessment 1) Enquiry 2) Report 3) Evaluation 4) Summary 5) Thesis 12. Devoted 1) Uncommitted 2) Disloyal 3) Disinterested 4) Dedicated 5) Fickle 13. Paradigm 1) Archetype 2) Set 3) Deposit 4) Lever 5) Prize Directions (Q. 14-15): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 14. Wrath 1) Affectionate 2) Passion 3) Rage 4) Zeal 5) Vicious 15. Lackadaisical 1) Active 2) Timid 3) Lazy 4) Fury 5) Vary Directions (Q. 16-20): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 16. We are___ to have him____ here to make this function a great success. 1) pleased, over 2) sure, come 3) wonderful, again 4) happy, arrive 5) elate, appear 17. The state Govt. staff ___ threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to ___ their demands. 1) had, go 2) have, press 3) were, meet 4) did, get 5) have, press 18. The speech___with subtle thre-ats has resulted in ___ tension. 1) replete, increased 2) followed, continuous 3) load, grow 4) started, reduced 5) full, escalating 19. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way to the polling stations ___ a lot. 1) going, dropped 2) encouraged, prepared 3) making, suffered 4) could, vow 5) undaunted, made 20. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any ___ to the customer's request. 1) can, help 2) has, aids 3) could, respect 4) had, cash 5) did, attention Directions (Q. 21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (5) as your answer. 21. Jack ordered for (1)/ two plates (2)/ of chicken (3)/ and a glass of water (4)/ No error (5) 22. He drank once again (1)/ as he (2)/ was feeling (3)/ very thirsty. (4)/ No error (5) 23. Bacteria is probably (1)/ the most (2)/ common form (3)/ of life on earth. (4)/ No error (5) 24. While going (1)/ through the report (2)/ yesterday I find (3)/ several factual mistakes. (4)/ No error (5) 25. On reaching the railway station (1)/ he was disappointed (2)/ to learn (3)/ that the train left. (4)/ No error (5) KEY 1) 4 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1 5) 4 6) 3 7) 1 8) 3 9) 2 10) 5 11) 3 12) 4 13) 1 14) 3 15) 3 16) 1 17) 2 18) 5 19) 3 20) 5 21) 1 22) 5 23) 1 24) 3 25) 4 -
ప్రపంచ స్థానిక బ్యాంకు యొక్క ట్యాగ్ లైన్?
1. With the aim of achieving Financial Inclusion, Reserve Bank Of India has issued guidelines permitting the banks to employ ____ to facilitate Business Development. a) Business Correspondents b) Franchisees c) Business Facilitators d) Both 'a' and 'c' e) None of the above 2. In respect of CGTMSE (Credit Guarantee fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises) No collateral and no third party guarantee for fund based and non fund based credit facilities up to ___ a) Rs. 10.00 lakhs b) Rs. 5.00 lakhs c) Rs.100 lakhs d) Rs. 5 lakhs e) None of the above 3. SME Stands for: a) Selling and Marketing Establishment b) Selling and Managing Employee c) Sales and Marketing entity d) Small and Medium Enterprises e) None of the above 4. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India? a) RBI b) SBI c) SIDBI d) SEBI e) None of the above 5. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is ______ a) International bank of India b) India's International bank c) Indian's Multinational Bank d) World's local Bank e) None of these 6. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Whi-ch of the following acts/ norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general? a) Banking Regulation Act b) Know Your Customer Norms c) Negotiable Instrument Act d) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act e) None of these 7. Which of the following is the Capital Market regulator? a) RBI b) IRDA c) NSE d) BSE e) SEBI 8. We know that RBI is the apex bank of India. Similarly the apex Bank of the USA is: a) Federal Reserve Bank b) The Central Bank of USA c) Bank of America d) Central National Bank of USA e) None of these 9. Authorized Dealers for foreign transactions are appointed by: a) Reserve Bank of India b) Government of India c) Individual Banks d) FEDAI e) None of these 10. As per the report published in the newspaper, the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/ are such credit rating agencies in India? (A) CARE (B) CRISIL (C) ULIP a) Only A b) Only B c) A and B d) Only C e) All A, B and C 11. As a practice, all banks now deduct some amount from their pre- tax income and set aside in a separate account to create a cushion for the loans which may go bad. This is called: a) CRR b) SLR c) Provisioning d) PLR e) None of these 12. Sales above Breakeven point is called ___ a) Margin of Safety b) Gross Profit c) Net profit d) b & c e) None of the above 13. In banking world when a loan given by a bank to an individual or organization is not returned by the borrower wishfully or otherwise, it is known as ___ (A) Standard Asset (B) Non - Performing Asset (C) Over Draft a) Only (A) b) Only (B) c) Only (C) d) Both (A) and (B) e) None of these 14. The power of the commercial banks to expand deposits through expanding their loans and advances is known as ____. a) Capital Expansion b) Credit Expansion c) Credit control d) Credit Creation e) None of the above 15. The Securitization And Recons-truction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act (SARFAESI) meant for recovery of loans which have become NPA is not applicable to: a) Public Sector banks b) Financial Institutes of the Govt. c) Private Banks d) Non - Banking Financial Companies e) Small & Cooperative Banks 16. FDI refers to? a) Fixed Deposit Interest b) Fixed Deposit Investment c) Foreign Direct Investment d) Future Derivative Investment e) None of these 17. World's local bank is the tag line of: a) HDFC b) HSBC c) CITY BANK d) SBI e) None of these 18. As we have noticed, many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/ branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace? (A) These banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation (B) These banks wish to help Indian firms, to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates (C) These Banks wish to promote trade and investment betw-een India and other countries a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) A, B and C e) Only B and C 19. Which of the following is NOT a banking / finance - related term? a) Cash Credit b) EMI c) Held to maturity d) Exposure limit e) Diffusion 20. Who is the new Deputy Gove-rnor of Reserve Bank of India? a) SS Mundra, CMD of Bank of Baroda b) VR Iyer, CMD of Bank of India c) RK Dubey, CMD, Canara Bank d) SL Bansal, CMD, Oriental Bank of Commerce e) None of the above 21. The term "kite flying" in banking refers to: a) Drawing a cheque without providing sufficient funds to meet it. b) Drawing and acceptance of a bill of exchange without consideration with a view to accommodate the other party. c) The practice of paying usance bills before they become due. d) Drawing a post-dated cheque. e) None of the above 22. Which is the first bank in India to launch its interactive banking service through Dish TV? a) SBI b) ICICI Bank c) HDFC Bank d) Axis Bank e) None of these 23. Which is the first bank in India to produce Green Power for captive use through wind mills? a) HDFC b) ICICI c) SBI d) Axis Bank e) None of these 24. Which category of accounts is opened under Financial Inclus-ion? a) Senior Citizen Deposit b) Super Saver Accounts c) No - Frill Accounts d) SBI Vishesh e) None 25. Which of the following is correct? a) Headquarters of National Insurance Company Ltd. is at Kolkata b) Headquarters of New India Assurance Co. Ltd. is at Mumbai c) Headquarters of Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. is at New Delhi d) Headquarters of United India Insurance Company Ltd. is at Chennai e) All of the above 26. The new corporate governance norms approved by SEBI would become applicable for all listed companies with effect from: a) 01 September 2014 b) 01 November 2014 c) 01 January 2015 d) 01 October 2014 e) None of the above 27. Who has taken over charge as CMD of IDBI bank in July 2014? a) MV Nair b) MS Raghavan c) KR Kamath d) Sadhuram Bansal e) TM Bashin 28. Maximum compensation an Ombudsman is empowered to award in respect of deficiency in service of the Credit Card operations is: a) Rs. 50,000/- b) Rs. 1 lakh c) Rs. 5 lakh d) Rs. 10 lakh e) No limit 29. Headquarters of ABN Amro Bank is located in ___ a) The Netherlands b) France c) Taiwan d) Canada e) Singapore 30. Which of the following are rating Agencies? a) Standard and Poor b) CRISIL c) ICRA d) CARE e) All of the above 31. As per the findings of the World Bank, which of the following recent developments in rural areas has doubled the income of rural households, raised literacy rate by 10% and appreciated land prices by up to 80%? a) Relief packages to the farmers b) Construction of all - weather roads c) Recharging of water bodies d) Rainwater harvesting e) None of these KEY 1) d 2) c 3) d 4) d 5) b 6) b 7) e 8) a 9) a 10) c 11) c 12) a 13) b 14) d 15) d 16) c 17) b 18) e 19) e 20) a 21) b 22) b 23) c 24) c 25) e 26) d 27) b 28) b 29) a 30) e 31) a. -
Code of conduct for DSA is formulated by?
1. Which of the following benefits of marketing are useful to the nation? a) Increase in the nation production b) Government Income c) Utility of national resources d) All of the above e) None of the above 2. ATM Centre of the bank is a means of ___ a) Direct marketing b) Indirect marketing c) Negative marketing d) All of the above e) None of the above 3. Which of the following bank is based on new marketing concept? a) Union Bank b) State Bank of India c) UCO Bank d) PNB e) All of the above 4. Which is the most suitable strategy for "Target Marketing"? a) CRM b) ATM c) DATA d) Union e) Strike 5. As per Partnership Act a non-banking company can have a maximum of 20 partners. How many partners may be there in a banking company? a) 10 b) Number of partner may be decided by customer c) 15 d) 20 e) 5 6. Abraham Moslow's theory deals with: a) Creativity b) Team spirit c) Hierarchical Theory of needs - Motivation d) Effective communication skills e) All of the above 7. What are the different stages of the Product Life Cycle? a) Creation and Development b) Product development, Introduction, Growth c) Corruption, Growth, Maturity d) Innovation, Growth, Decline e) Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline 8. ____ is the course of a Product's sales and Profits over its life time. a) Research and development b) Brand and Brand planning c) Product life cycle d) Cost e) Price 9. Cash and carry wholesalers are _____ wholesalers a) full line b) specialty line c) general merchandise d) full service e) limited services 10. Which of the following is not a promotional drive component? a) Kiosk Banking b) Tele marketing c) SMS d) Print media Advertisement e) Telephone calls 11. Which of the following involves the Traditional marketing? a) Telemarketing b) Digital Marketing c) Indirect Marketing d) Direct Marketing e) All of the above 12. Free Sample as a sales promotion device is the actual offering of a free trial of a Product to ____ a) Consumer b) Product produce of the organization c) Staff d) Manager e) All of the above 13. Which of the following is not a part of 4 Ps of Marketing Mix? a) Product b) Price c) Promotion d) Person e) Place 14. One of the following is not a target group for saving account _____ a) Salaried Persons b) Doctors c) Public servants d) Insurance agents e) Loss Making Companies 15. The performance of a sales person is directly linked to ___ a) the amount of incentives paid b) profit level of the company c) ability of the sales person d) All of the above e) None of the above 16. ____ helps people to select and buy required product/service as per their choice. a) Product Mix and Cost Pricing b) Advertising c) Brand d) Price e) Quality 17. Which of the following options will meet the example of Product Line? a) SB, CD, Vehicle Loan, Mortgage Loan b) SB, CD, LC, LG c) Global variables d) SB, CD, FD, RD e) Segment and portfolio wise data 18. A ____ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product? a) product idea b) product image c) product concept d) product feature e) None of these 19. Business facilitator and Business Correspondents are: a) Employees of the Bank b) Appointed by RBI c) Outsourced persons to assist the bankers d) Appointed by individual banks to speed up financial inclusion objectives e) c & d 20. Code of conduct for DSA (Direct Selling Agents) is formulated by: a) Indian Banks' Association b) Reserve Bank of India c) Government of India d)Concerned State Governme- nts e) None of the above 21. Alternate Delivery channels for Banks include: a) ATMs b) POs c) Mobile Banking d) Internet Banking e) All of the above 22. Consumer behavior, Perception is a process through which a) a consumer make ultimate purchasing b) a consumer is satisfied c) a consumer's mind receives, organizes and interprets physical stimuli d) Both (a) and (c) e) None of the above 23. The Target Group for Current Deposit Account is ___ a) Newborn babies b) Students c) Parents d) Businessmen e) All of the above 24. Mutual funds investment can be effectively canvassed because of the advantage of ____ a) Low Risk b) High Risk c) Totally risk free d) All of the above e) None of the above 25. Recently ____ has raised its stake beyond 10% in a few blue chip companies even after the insurance regulator IRDA decided to impose a cap of 10% on the institution's investment in a single company. a) Life Insurance Corporation b) General Insurance Corpora- tion c) Tata-AIG Insurance d) All of the above e) None of the above 26. Which of the following is not a tool for Marketing Planning Appraisal? a) External appraisal b) Internal appraisal c) PCOT analysis d) Gap analysis e) SWOT analysis 27. Which of the following refers to the unauthorized sale of new, branded products diverted from authorized distribution channels or imported into a country for sale without the consent or knowledge of the manufacturer? a) Stealth marketing b) Niche distribution c) Grey marketing d) Authorized distribution e) None of these 28. In SWOT analysis, situations where organizations are able to convert weaknesses into strengths and threats into opportunities are called: a) Strategic windows b) Strategic leverage c) Conversion strategies d) Vulnerability e) None of the above 29. In modern day marketing, the benefits of selling extend to ___ a) Only products and services b) Only after sales services c) Lifelong relationship with the buyer d) All of the above e) None of the above 30. 'Out sourcing' means services rendered by ____ a) Outside agencies b) Other departments of the company c) Employees, other than the sales persons d) Marketing department e) All of the above 31. Find the incorrect option regarding Sales promotion: a) Building Product Awareness b) Creating Interest c) Providing Information d) Designing new products e) None of these 32. Which among the following works as an access barriers? a) Trade laws b) Tariff c) Communication d) Price e) None of the above KEY 1) d; 2) a; 3) e; 4) a; 5) a; 6) c; 7) e; 8) c; 9) e; 10) a; 11) d; 12) a; 13) d; 14) e; 15) c; 16) b; 17) d; 18) b; 19) e; 20) a; 21) e; 22) d; 23) d; 24) a; 25) a; 26) c; 27) c; 28) c; 29) b; 30) a; 31) d; 32) a. -
The Perception of Price Depends on..
1. Which of the following is one of the important standard marke- ting practices? a) Poaching b) Business ethics c) Unhealthy competition d) Phishing e) Discount schemes to attract more customers 2. Sales curve move through various phases within its life cycle. Which of the following is not such phase? a) Introduction b) Growth c) Maturity d) Decline e) None of these 3. Which of the following are the characteristics of service products? a) Inseparability b) Variability c) Intangibility d) Perishability e) All of the above 4. The abbreviation for ISP is: a) International Spy Project communication b) Indian Social Planning c) Initial Service Provider d) Internet Service Provider e) None of the above 5. Unplanned purchases of a con- sumer are called: a) Impulse buying b) Irregular Demand c) Unwholesome buying d) Latent demand e) None of these 6. In terms of consumer demand and spending behavior, markets are most interested in ___ a) Consumer credit b) Wealth c) Disposable income d) Pretax income e) High Income 7. The advantage of telephone interview is: a) Relatively low cost per interview b) Good for reaching important people who are inaccessible c) Good for reaching important people who are inaccessible d) Securing Co-operation which is not always possible e) a and b 8. While making a research for introducing a new product, different types of interviews is conducted. In this process a depth interview is most likely to be used to ____ a) alter a buyer's attitude towa- rds a product b) influence a buyers percep- tions of a product c) identify a buyers personality d) increase a buyers knowledge of a product e) discover the buyers motives 9. _____ is the difference between the cost of a good or service and its selling price. a) Target return pricing b) Value pricing c) Marginal cost pricing d) Markup pricing e) Group pricing 10. Marketing mix does not include: a) Distribution b) Product c) Target Marketing d) Pricing e) None of these 11. Demographic factors influencing consumer behavior depends on: a) Age b) Gender c) Language d) Income e) All of the above 12. Which of the following statements concerning marketing research is NOT CORRECT? a) Secondary research can be organized in house or via a research agency b) No research is required to market a product c) Secondary research is quicker than primary research d) Secondary research is chea- per than primary research e) None of these 13. The remedy against Unfair Com- petition by Misrepresentation is based on the law of ____ a) Equity b) Pairing off c) Product proliferation d) Passing off e) None of these 14. A paid form of non personal presentation and promotion is called: a) Direct marketing b) Advertising c) Personal selling d) Product modification e) Public relation 15. The perception of price depends on: a) A consumer's analysis of competitive prices b) A product's actual price and consumers' expectations reg- arding price c) A consumer's expectation of price d) All of the above e) None of the above 16. As a councilor, a personnel manager ____ a) reminds the management of moral obligations towards employees. b) encourages the employees. c) should inform the employees of their deficiencies in their work. d) tries to settle the disputes bet- ween labour & management. e) All of the above 17. Which growth strategy focuses on developing new product for a company's existing markets? a) Market Penetration b) Product Development c) Market Development d) Diversification e) None of these 18. Which of the following is the key feature of oligopolistic competition? a) Emphasis on price competi- tion b) Complete absence of compet- ition c) Emphasis on product differe- ntiation d) Interdependence of suppliers e) None of these 19. Developing a promotional progr- amme for a new service starts with ____ a) choosing a promotional mes-sage b) determining promotional objectives c) choosing an appropriate medium d) evaluating alternative e) None of these 20. _____ channel is only used in banking services. a) Consumer marketing b) Producer marketing c) Direct marketing d) Indirect marketing e) None of these 21. Who among the following is least likely to be directly invol- ved in actually making sales? a) Order taker b) Current - customer sales- person c) Order booking staff d) Support personnel e) Field order taker 22. While finalizing the sales promotion objectives, a marketer should always ____ a) concentrates on activities that will increase consumer demand b) focuses on consumers c) be defensive in the methods used d) align objectives with the org- anisations overall objective e) None of these 23. Promotion through Electronic Media: a) Is cheap b) Is must for every product promotion c) Is appealing though costly d) a and b e) None of these 24. Which type of advertisement is most useful for adventure travels? a) Distribution through local network b) Use of 'High street' travel agents c) Direct sales from tour operator to customer d) Sales through wholesaler e) None of these 25. Value for money of a product can be best defined as: a) A technical measure of a company's selling price related to its production cost b) A measure of the mark-up price charged by companies c) The lowest prices available to consumers d) The best ratio of benefits to costs available to buyers e) None of these 26. Which among the following is a part of 5 Ms of Marketing? a) Market b) Management c) Money d) Manpower e) All of the above 27. Which among the following is not an example of convenience goods? a) Tea b) Coffee c) News paper d) Shirts e) All of the above 28. ____ is the LEAST preferred promotion media for business to business marketers. a) Direct mail b) Television c) Trade publications d) Personal selling e) All of the above 29. Find the true statement. a) Marketing is a waste of the employee's time b) Market is not required in Ind- ia due to its vast population c) Marketing involves additio- nal work d) Marketing involves team work e) None of these 30. Deceptive ____ includes such practices as false advertising "factory" or "wholesale" price. a) Pricing b) Packaging c) Promotion d) Products e) All of the above 31. Like 7 'P's of marketing, there are 7 'O's of consumer behav- iour. One of the parts of 7 'O's: a) Object b) Objective c) Outlets d) Operation e) All of the above 32. Labeling is important for infor- mational, legal and ___reasons. a) Marketing b) Branding c) Promotional d) Strategic e) None of these 33. Which of the following is most likely to stimulate middle class buyers? a) Unexpected value added services b) Good reception c) Discounts on festive seasons d) Buy one get one free e) All of the above 34. _____ is the term that is often used to describe the value of a product. a) Brand position b) Brand equity c) Brand mapping d) Brand image e) None of these 35. ____ is called as 'Prospect'. a) A team leader b) A likely buyer c) A rude person d) A religious head e) A polite person 36. The label on hair dye packet 'we dye for you" is written to tell the product purpose and also to __ a) promote the product b) provide information c) encourage multiple purchases d) All of the above e) None of the above 37. Which of the following countries has made the greatest inroads into world markets? a) Indonesia b) China c) Japan d) Philippines e) Malaysia -
నికర వడ్డీ ఆదాయం అంటే ఏమిటి?
1. When the objective is to follow the best practices to conduct the affairs of a company or bank in a transparent manner for giving fair deal to all the stake holders, this is called: a) Implementation of prudential guidelines b) Organizational restructuring c) Corporate governance d) Corporate restructuring e) Autonomy 2. A banking system under which the banks are to raise low cost funds and invest such funds in low risk assets such as govt. securities, is known as: a) Narrow banking b) Universal banking c) Rural banking d) Risk management banking e) Asset liability management banking 3. When Reserve Bank injects liquidity in the monetary economy of the country, this is done through which of the following mechanisms? a) Increase in CRR b) Repo c) Increase in SLR d) Change in bank rate e) Liquidity adjustment facility 4. ESOP stands for: a) Efficient servicing of promises b) Employees' service option projects c) Employees stock option plan d) Effective system of projects e) None of the above 5. Interest rate on a debt security (say Govt. bonds) which issuer pays to holder till maturity: a) Interest b) Yield c) Floating rate d) Coupon rate e) None of the above 6. Branches of banks distribute to their customers as corporate agents, insurance products of other insurance companies, which is called: a) Underwriting business b) Banc assurance c) Referral business d) Any of the above e) None of the above 7. The temporary loans that are allowed by RBI to Govt. from time to time to meet the mismatch position are called: a) Treasury bills b) Dated securities c) Ways and means advances d) Adhoc treasury bills e) None of the above 8. Narrow money is the term in monetary aggregates which represented by: a) M1 b) M2 c) M3 d) M4 e) None of the above 9. In ____ banking, the banks offer all types of financial services to expand their business that include high risk products and medium risk products also: a) Retail banking b) Universal banking c) Wholesale banking d) Narrow banking e) None of the above 10. When an existing non-profit org-anization is converted into a for-profit company, the process is called: a) Dematerialization b) Demutualization c) Re-materialization d) Re-mutualization e) None of the above 11. A ____ is a financial contract between two parties to exchange interest payments for a 'notional principal' amount on settlement date, for a specified period from start date to maturity date a) Interest rate swap b) Forward rate agreement c) Interest rate future d) Foreign exchange forward e) None of the above 12. What is meant by the term rev-erse REPO out of the following: a) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of govt. securities b) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of govt. securities c) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhance economic growth rate d) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market e) None of the above 13. When an unlisted company issues fresh securities for the first time, it is called: a) Initial public offering b) Rights issue c) Follow-on public offering d) Bonous shares e) None of the above 14. Process of artificially increasing or decreasing prices of security a) Inside a trading b) Circular trading c) Price rigging d) Any of the above e) None of the above 15. The term broad money is known as a) M1 b) M2 c) M3 d) M4 e) None of the above Note: Narrow money (M1) = curren-cy with the public + demand deposits with banking system + other deposits with the RBI Broad money (M3) = currency with the public + demand deposits with banking system + other deposits with the RBI + time deposits with the banking system 16. Gilt-edged market deals in a) Worn currency notes b) Bullion and gold c) Govt . securities d) Corporate bonds e) All kinds of capital market securities 17. The securities that are purchased by banks with the intension to ta-ke advantage of price movement or interest movement are classified as a) Held till maturity b) Available for sale c) Held for trading d) Fluctuating securities e) None of the above 18. What is the maturity period of treasury bills issued by Govt. of India. a) 14 and 91 days b) 91 and 182 days c) 14 and 182 days d) 91, 182 and 364 days e) None of the above 19. Ways and means advances of the central Govt. are payable within a period of a) 10 days b) 18 days c) 15days d) 20 days e) 14 days 20. The market for short term financial assets/ instruments, that are closed substitutes of money is called a) Money market b) Capital market c) Forex market d) Financial market e) None of the above 21. Under ___ market the funds are transacted by banks on an overnight basis a) Money market b) Call money market c) Notice money market d) Term money market e) None of the above 22. As per the prudent limit fixed by RBI in respect of outstanding borrowing transactions in call and notice money for participa-ting banks, the banks can borrow a maximum of _____ On any day, during the fortnight a) 110% of their capital fund b) 120% of their capital fund c) 150% of their capital fund d) 125% of their capital fund e) None of the above 23. The term Plastic Money relates to which of the following a) Credit card b) Prepaid phone card c) Plastic sheet notes d) Debit card e) None of the above 24. Which of the following statem-ent regarding amount of certific-ate of deposit is correct a) Minimum amount of 1 lakh and maximum amount of 1 crore b) Minimum amount of 1 lakh and maximum amount of 5 lakh c) Minimum amount of 1 lakh without any maximum but multiple should be of 2 lakhs d) Minimum amount of 1 lakh without any maximum but multiple should be of 1 lakh e) None of the above Note: certificate of deposits issued by banks can have a maturity period of 7 days to 12 months 25. What is the maximum ceiling on foreign direct investment (FDI) for investment in the equity of public sector banks in India a) 20 b) 26 c) 49 d) 51 e) 74 Note: FDI for investment in the eq-uity of private banks in India is 74%. 26. Listed companies are required to disclose their quarterly financial results with in ____ from close of the quarter a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 60 days e) None of the above 27. Which of the following extensi-on of abbreviation does not match a) BCSBI - banking codes and standards board of India b) KYC - know your consumer c) BFS - board for financial supervision d) BIFR - board for industrial and financial reconstruction e) None of the above 28. Banks are required to ensure that while preparing their annual branch expansion plan (ABEP), they should allocate at least ____ of the total number of branches proposed to be opened during a year in unbanked rural centers. a) 20% b) 25% c) 33% d) 40% e) None of the above 29. What is the Net Interest Income (NII) a) Difference of interest earned on assets and non interest income b) Difference of assets and liabilities c) Difference of interest earned on interest and on assets and interest paid on liabilities d) None of the above e) None of the above 30. When REPO rate is reduced by RBI it leads to a) Reduction of cost to borrowers on loans from banks b) Increase in cost of loans to borrowers from banks c) Reduction in cost of borrowing from RBI d) Increase in cost of borrowing b y banks from RBI e) None of the above 31. Which of the following interest rates is fixed by RBI and not left to the discretion of the banks concerned a) Saving bank deposit b) Export credit facilities c) NRE deposit accounts d) DRI advances KEY 1) c 2) a 3) b 4) c 5) d 6) b 7) c 8) a 9) b 10) b 11) b 12) b 13) a 14) c 15) c 16) c 17) c 18) d 19) a 20) a 21) b 22) d 23) a 24) d 25) a 26) c 27) b 28) b 29) a 30) c 31) c -
The products a consumer need...!
1. An imbalance between consum-er's actual and desired state in which recognition that a gap or problem needs resolving is called? a) Motive development b) An attitude c) A self-concept d) Product evaluation e) None of these 2. Increase in Market Share of the bank means the ____ base of the bank gets enlarged. a) productivity b) profitability c) popularity d) customer e) None of these 3. Which of the following is an example of Cross- Selling? a) Selling insurances to saving A/c holder b) Bancassurance c) Only 'a' d) Both 'a' & 'b' e) None of these 4. During the maturity stage of a pr-oduct, the profit margins will be ___. a) low b) high c) reducing margins d) nil e) None of these 5. Every product has four stages in its life cycle i.e. Introduction, Growth, Maturity and Decline. Which of the following banking products in India is at the introductory stage? a) Tele Banking b) Home Banking c) Debit Cards d) All of these e) None of these 6. Product lines have product leng-ths depending upon the number of items. Which of the following can be said not to belong to "Ret-ail Product Line" in Banking? a) Cash management services b) Savings Bank c) Recurring deposits d) Fixed deposits e) None of these 7. Which of the following banking product is in "Decline Stage" of the product life cycle? a) Outside cheque collection b) Demand Draft c) Fixed deposit d) Both 'a' & 'b' e) None of these 8. The formal marketing research project can be viewed as a series of steps called as: a) Research Problem b) Research Project c) Research Process d) Research Report e) None of these 9. Which stage of "Hierarchy of effects" is 'Point of Purchase Display' more useful for? a) Awareness b) Conviction c) Knowledge d) Linking e) None of these 10. Setting price for a whole line of products is known as ___ a) Wholesale Pricing b) Retail Pricing c) Full- Line Pricing d) Secondary Pricing e) None of these 11. "Setting at very low prices to attract the customers and once the customer is in the store trying to sell more expensive models or brands" is called: a) Cheating b) Disguised pricing c) Misleading d) Bait pricing e) None of these 12. A distributed data processing configuration in which all activities must pass through a centrally located computer is called: a) Star Network b) Spider Network c) Ring Network d) Sun Network e) None of these 13. Some customers feel that costly products are good quality products. Some Showrooms & Shop-ping Malls display Economy & Premium segments in different sections - it makes the customers believe that they are getting good quality superior products. This kind of Strategy is called: a) Superior pricing b) Skimming pricing c) Psychological pricing d) Quality pricing e) None of these 14. Which of the following is a hierarchy of effects or sequential mo-del used to explain how advertising works? a) ADD b) AIDA c) PESTLE d) SWOT e) None of these 15. Which of the following is the interpersonal communication ab-out products or services where a receiver regards the communicator is impartial and not attempting to sell products or services? a) Word Of Mouth (WOM) b) Personal Selling (PS) c) Direct Marketing (DM) d) Customer Service (CS) e) None of these 16. The place where all the people who participate in or influence a purchase is known as: a) Market b) Buying Centre c) Selling Centre d) Mall e) None of these 17. Which of the following is not one of the categories of research design? a) Exploratory research b) Descriptive research c) Causal research d) Desk research e) None of these 18. A market with broadly similar needs and a seller offering various & often diverse ways of satisfying those needs is known as: a) Open Market b) Specific Market c) Dedicated Market d) General Market e) None of these 19. The products a consumer need, but is not willing to spend much time or efforts for shopping, are known as? a) Convenience Products b) Industrial Products c) Hobbing Products d) Luxury Products e) None of these 20. A brand name that is used for several products is known as ___ a) Common Brand b) General Brand c) Family Brand d) Generic Brand e) None of these 21. Offering new or improved products for present markets is known as ___ a) Product Research b) Product Specialty c) Product Liking d) Product Development e) None of these 22. Separating products into grades & qualities desired by different target markets is known as ___ a) Product Differentiation b) Sorting c) Assortment d) Product Selection e) None of these 23. Trying to sell the top of the demand curve at a high price before aiming at more price sensitive customers is known as ___ a) Sieving Pricing Policy b) Skimming Pricing Policy c) Full line pricing Policy d) Premium Pricing Policy e) None of these 24. Stores for which the customers have developed a strong attraction are known as ___ a) Attractive Stores b) General Purpose Stores c) All Purpose Stores d) Specialty Stores e) None of these 25. Moving into totally different lines of business, which may include entirely unfamiliar products, markets or even levels in the product marketing systems is known as: a) Spreading the Wings b) Generalization c) Diversification d) Globalization e) None of these 26. Which sampling techniques are often selected in qualitative research? a) Probability sampling b) Random sampling c) Stratified sampling d) Non-probability sampling e) None of these 27. Since the sale of landline phones gets affected by the growth of mobile phones, mobile phone can be termed as_______ products to land phones. a) rival b) competitive c) substitute d) complementary e) None of these 28. Though 'Pizza huts' are located in posh, air conditioned premises, they continue to call themselves as 'Pizza huts'. This is to take care advantage of ___ a) Brand Value b) Brand Extension c) Brand Recognition d) Psychological sentiment of wanting to eat in 'huts' e) None of these 29. The internationally reputed magazine 'economist' is priced higher in India, to cover the transportation cost, than in UK, where it is published. This type of pricing is called: a) Transportation Cost Pricing b) Full Absorption Cost Pricing c) Geographical Pricing d) International Pricing e) None of these 30. When color TVs were introduced in India for the first time, the manufacturers priced them very high. After the initial enthusiasm gradually decreased, the prices were reduced. This type of pricing strategy is called? a) Market Skimming b) Price Skimming c) Initial Skimming d) Introductory Skimming e) None of these 31. Sometimes companies reduce the prices for a temporary period (in spite of loss) to create a sense of urgency in the buyer's mind. Wide publicity is also given to such reduction. This type of pricing strategy is called……? a) Introductory Pricing b) Promotional Pricing c) Off- Season Pricing d) Psychological Pricing e) None of these 32. A Direct Marketing Channel is sometimes referred to what type of Channel? a) Zero b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these 33. Which of the following statement is incorrect? a) Tangible product in the form of food is an integral part of service product in air travel b) Core product is that what the buyer is really interested to buy e.g.: Soap as a detergent and not something made of alkali or oil. c) Augmented product is that which is a bundle of total benefits that a person enjoys on getting the product d) Only a and b e) None of these 34. The distinction between FII and FDI is: a) While FIIs invest in industries, FDIs invest in capital markets b) While FIIs invest in capital markets, FDIs invest in industries c) Both can invest in capital markets d) All of the above e) None of these 35. Bank marketing refers to? a) Identifying the most profitable markets now and in the future b) Assessing the present and future needs of the customers c) Setting business development goals and making plans to meet them d) All of these e) None of these 36. Which of the following is not a service offered for Internet Banking Customers? a) View of balance and last few transactions b) Generate statement of account c) Utility bills payment facility like payment of electricity or telephone bills etc. d) All of the above e) None of the above 37. Greater consumer control means that companies must rely more on marketing by ____ than by ____. a) socialization; information b) producing; selling c) inspiration; competition d) interruption; involvement e) interaction; intrusion 38. Which of the following is central to any definition of marketing? a) Making a profit b) Making a sale c) Demand management d) Transactions e) Customer relationships KEY 1) a 2) d 3) a 4) c 5) b 6) a 7) d 8) c 9) a 10) c 11) d 12) b 13) c 14) b 15) a 16) b 17) d 18) d 19) a 20) c 21) d 22) b 23) b 24) d 25) c 26) d 27) c 28) c 29) c 30) a 31) b 32) a 33) e 34) b 35) d 36) e 37) e 38) e. -
బ్యాంక్స్ స్పెషల్
1. Which of the following device can store large amount of data? a) Floppy Disk b) Hard Disk c) CDROM d) Zip Disk e) Pen drive 2. VIRUS stands for? a) Very Important Resource Under Search b) Virtual Information Resource Under Seize c) Verify Interchange Result Until Source d) Very Important Record User Searched e) None of these 3. Which of the following is NOT a computer manufacture? a) SUN b) IBM c) MICROSOFT d) APPLE e) None of these 4. Which of the following program is not a utility? a) Debugger b) Editor c) Spooler d) All of the above e) None of these 5. The difference between memory and storage is that the memory is ____ and Storage is ____? a) temporary, permanent b) permanent, temporary c) slow, fast d) None of the above e) All of the above 6. Which type of switching system is telephone network? a) Circuit switching b) Packet switching c) Message switching d) All of the above e) None of the above 7. Operating system is a ____ a) collection of hardware components b) collection of software routines c) collection of input-output devices d) All of the above e) None of the above 8. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT: a) Hackers b) Spam c) Viruses d) Identity theft e) None of these 9. Which extension is used for Batch File? a) .sh b) .exe c) .bat d) .doc e) .docx 10. Poor response times are usually caused by? a) Process busy b) High I/O rates c) High paging rates d) Any of the above e) None of these 11. Modem stands for: a) A type of secondary memory b) Modulator demodulator c) Mainframe operating device memory d) All of the above e) None of the above 12. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are: a) Syntax errors b) Semantic errors c) Logical errors d) All of the above e) None of these 13. What are three types of basic languages used in computer programming? a) Zero, low and high levels b) COBOL, BASIC and PROLOG c) FOTRAN, PL/I and SNOWBOL d) Machine, Assembly and High level languages e) None of these 14. A computer can be defined as an electronic device that can ____ (Choose the most precise definition) a) carry out arithmetical operations b) carry out logical function c) accept and process data using a set of stored instructions d) present information on a VDU e) All of the above 15. A process known as ____ is used by large retailers to study trends? a) data mining b) data selection c) POS d) data conversion e) None of these 16. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to _____ data? a) present b) input c) output d) storage e) None 17. Which of the following code is developed by IBM Corporation, is used in present days? a) ASCII b) Hollerith Code c) Bardot code d) EBCDIC code e) None of these 18. Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are? a) Internal b) External c) Hardware d) Software e) None of these 19. Which of the following does not represent on I/O device? a) Speaker which beeps b) Joystick c) Plotter d) ALU e) None 20. ____ is the science revolving around the use of nano- structures to build vices on an extremely small scale. a) Nanotechnology b) Micro-technology c) Computer forensics d) Artificial intelligence e) None of the above 21. The most common addressing techniques employed by a CPU is ____ a) immediate b) direct c) indirect d) register e) All of the above 22. Swapping means? a) Works best with many small partitions b) Allows many programs to use memory simultaneously c) Allows each program in turn to use the memory d) Does not work with overlaying e) None of these 23. Example of non-numerical data is: a) Employee address b) Examination score c) Bank balance d) All of the above e) None of the above 24. Which of the following companies is a leader in manufacture of Hard Disk Drives? a) Samsung b) IBM c) Fujitsu d) Seagate e) Moratala 25. A step by step procedure used to solve a problem is called a) Operating system b) Algorithm c) Application Program d) All of the above e) None of the above 26. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located? a) Memory Address Register b) Memory Data Register c) Instruction Register d) Program Register e) None of these 27. Which technology is used in a CDROM Drive? a) Mechanical b) Electromechanical c) Optical d) Fiber Optical e) Cable 28. Which of the following comma-nds will take you directly to the root directory no matter what sub directory you are currently in? a) CD \root b) CD\ c) CD\.. d) CD.. e) None of the above 29. The Analytical Engine developed during First Generation of computers used___ as a memory unit. a) RAM b) Floppies c) Cards d) Counter Wheels e) Rooms 30. A time sharing system implies__ a) more than one processor in the system b) more than one program in memory c) more than one memory in the system d) All of the above e) None of the above 31. What DOS program can you run to see which serial ports are detected? a) combing b) MSD c) command.com d) SDET e) serial.chk 32. The ___ command allows you to modify the default prompt to provide other information. a) prompt b) windows c) cursor d) click e) None of the above 33. What would be the next step in configuring the hard drive in a system after doing the low-level format? a) Format DOS partition b) Install operating system c) Configure DMA channel and back up interrupt d) Partition hard disk e) None of the above 34. The ascending order or a data Hierarchy is? a) bit - bytes - fields - record - file - database b) bit - bytes - record - field - file - database c) bytes - bit- field - record - file - database d) bytes -bit - record - field - file - database e) All of the above 35. The capacity of your hard drive is measured in? a) MHz b) Mbps c) Giga bytes d) Mega byte e) None of the above 36. The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputers are combined and manufacture on a single silicon chip. What is it called? a) Mono chip b) Microprocessor c) ALU d) Control unit e) None 37. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with? a) Multimedia b) Words c) Characters d) Numbers e) None KEY 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. b 12.a 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. e 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. b 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. d -
Zero coupon bonds are those..
Banks Special Banking Awareness 1. KYC norms are liberalized in case of following account: a) Current Account b) Savings Account c) Term Deposit Account d) No Frills Account e) None of the above 2. The National Social Security Fund (NSSF) helps which of the following groups of society? a) Bank employees b) Central government employees c) Workers in the unorganized sector d) Workers in the textile industry e) Women employees 3. Regional Rural Banks have been set up with the basic objective of: a) Providing credit to semi-urban and urban population b) Providing deposits facilities to farmers c) Providing credit and deposit facilities to rural areas d) Providing credit, deposit and other banking facilities to people in rural areas e) None of the above 4. Which of the following deposits do not attract TDS? a) Fixed Deposits b) Deposits Reinvestment c) Flexi Deposits d) Call Deposits e) Recurring Deposits 5. Which of the following tools is used by the RBI to control credit and monetary situations of the markets? a) RTGS b) ECS c) NEFT d) CRR e) Balance of trade 6. The Cash Reserve Ratio is to be maintained by Commercial Banks in the form of? a) Cash in hand at branches b) Balance with other banks c) Balance in a special account with RBI d) Funds in the currency chest e) All of the above 7. Regional Rural Banks are classified as? a) subsidiaries of NABARD b) subsidiaries of the sponsor banks c) scheduled commercial banks d) All of the above e) None of the above 8. Foreign exchange reserves of India are kept in the custody of which of the following? a) International Bank for Reco- nstruction and Development b) Reserve Bank of India c) State Bank of India d) International Monetary Fund e) Government Treasury 9. A Hire-purchase contract is a ________ a) Contract of bailment b) Contract of sale c) Contract of bailment followed by contract of sale d) Contract of lease followed by contract of bailment e) None of these 10. Which of the following Act defines the age of a minor? a) Section 25 of N.I. Act b) Section 33 of Contract Act c) Section 54 of Partnership Act d) Section 3 of Indian Majority Act e) None of these 11. The objective(s) of SLR is/are: a) To ensure that Banks remain solvent b) To increase volumes in Government securities. c) To regulate expansion of Credit d) All of the above e) None of these 12. What is the amount of capital that RBI is tentatively proposing to provide to the Public Sector Banks this year, to meet its capital adequacy requirement as per Basel III norms ? a) 11,200 cr b) 20,000 cr c) 12,200 cr d) 13,200 cr e) None of the above 13. Decrease of CRR & SLR has the effect of: a) Decreasing Credit creation b) Increasing Credit creation c) Increasing purchasing power of money d) All of the above e) None of the above 14. Which of the following Acts has specially been enacted to help banks deal with bad loans? a) Negotiable Instrument Act b) Banking Regulation Act c) SARFAESI Act d) Companies Act e) Offshore Banking Act 15. _____ provides Clearing House facilities for netting of payments and security delivery? a) Primary dealers b) Banks c) Stock exchanges d) All of the above e) None of these 16. Which of the following cities are tentatively selected by RBI to launch Rs 10/- plastic notes? a) Shimla b) Kochi c) Mysore d) Jaipur and Bhubaneswar e) All of the above places 17. Depositories hold shares in ______form: a) Physical b) Dematerialized c) Either a or b d) Both a and b e) None of these 18. Current Account can be opened by? a) Any Company registered under ROC Act 1956 b) Partnership Firms c) Sole Proprietor d) Any Individual or joint individual e) All of these 19. Zero coupon bonds are those ________: a) Which do not make a periodical coupon payment b) These bonds are bought for less than their face value (at a discount). c) Are mostly issued in auctions by Treasury. d) All of the above e) None of these 20. Name the first State Cooperative Bank in India which started its own 'RuPay' ATM-cum-Debit Card? a) Andhra Pradesh State Cooperative Bank in Hyderabad b) Himachal State Cooperative Bank in Shimla c) The Andaman and Nicobar State Co-operative Bank Ltd. d) The Bihar State Co-operative Bank Ltd e) Jharkhand State Co-operative Bank 21. Finance Ministry has asked all Public Sector Banks to improve their ________ portfolio to 40%? a) Fixed Deposits b) Recurring Deposits c) Flexi Deposits d) CASA Deposits e) None of the above 22. The Credit Guarantee Fund (CGTMSE) Scheme covers? a) Only term loans b) Only working capital c) Both a and b d) All Type of Fund based & Non Fund based credit facility e) None of these 23. RBI directed Banks not to levy penalty on individual borrowers for pre-payment of floating rate term loans. This term loans include? a) Housing Loan b) Vehicle Loan c) Personal Loan d) Only a &b e) All a, b and c 24. The Difference between Gross Domestic Product and Net Domestic Product is? a) Government Revenue b) Net Indirect Tax (Indirect Tax Subsidy) c) Consumption of fixed Capital d) Net Capital Formation e) None of these 25. Recently, the RBI has recognized Micro Finance Institution Network (MFIN), as the Self Regulatory organization for NBFC-MFIs. The decision was taken by RBI based on the recommendations made by which committee? a) Y H Malegam committee b) Parthasarthi Shome committee c) Chakrabharthy committee d) Khan committee e) None of these 26. Where is the headquarter of Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) located? a) Jakarta b) Singapore c) Kathmandu d) Bangkok e) None of these 27. World Bank was established in the year? a) 1943 b) 1944 c) 1945 d) 1946 e) None of these 28. Through which of the following the funds to the projects aided by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are distributed? a) Regional Branches of RBI b) NABARD c) Integrated Rural Development Programme d) Agriculture Corporation Refinance and Development e) Ministry of Finance 29. QFI stands for: a) Qualified Financial Investor b) Qualified Foreign Investor c) Qualitative Financial Investment d) All of the above e) None of the above 30. Which of the following is NOT a part of India's Money Market? a) Bill Market b) Call Money Market c) Banks d) Mutual Funds e) Indian Gold Council 31. Exim Bank is planning to set up a Project Development Company (PDC) in Africa along with: a) State Bank of India b) IL&FS c) African Development Bank d) Only a & b e) a, b & c 32. Department of Economic Affairs is part of which of the following Ministries? a) Ministry of Home Affairs b) Ministry of Planning c) Ministry of Finance d) Ministry of Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises e) Ministry of Rural Development 33. Which of the following is a Fixed Asset? a) Goodwill b) Land & Building c) Cash d) All of the above e) None of the above 34. What is the full form of LAF, the term used in banking world very frequently? a) Legal Adjournment Formality b) Liquid Advance & Finance c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility d) Late Arrival of Finance e) Local Advance Finance 35. Recently, which among the following banks has organized "The Banking and Economics Conclave 2014" a national level banking conclave for the first time? a) State Bank of India b) Canara Bank c) State Bank of Mysore d) Vijaya Bank e) None of these 36. Takehiko Nakao is the president of which of the following organization? a) OPEC b) African Union c) IMF d) WTO e) ADB 37. Net worth of business means: a) Equity capital b) Total asset c) Fixed asset d) Total asset - total liability e) None of the above 38. Insurance cover for bank deposits in our country is provided by? a) SBI b) Government of India c) DICGC d) GIC e) None of these 39. Who among the following can invest in capital markets in India through Portfolio Investment? 1. Non Resident Indians (NRIs) 2. Foreign Institutional Investm- ents (FIIs) 3. Persons of Indian Origins (PIO) Choose the correct answer from the option given below? a) Only 1 & 2 b) Only 2 & 3 c) Only 1 & 3 d) 1, 2 & 3 e) None of the above 40. Which of the following is NOT a Scheduled Commercial Bank? a) HDFC Bank b) Axis Bank c) IDBI Bank d) NABARD e) SBI KEY 1) d 2) c 3) d 4) e 5) d 6) c 7) c 8) b 9) c 10) d 11) d 12) b 13) b 14) c 15) c 16) e 17. b 18) e 19) d 20) b 21) d 22) d 23) e 24) d 25) a 26) a 27) b 28) d 29) b 30) e 31) e 32) c 33) b 34) c 35) a 36) e 37) d 38) c 39) d 40) d -
నేషనల్ ఎడ్యుకేషన్ డే
1. Which of the following public sector companies was conferred the coveted 'Navratna' status on 2014 June 24? (Navratna status would give it more financial and operational autonomy) 1) Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Limited 2) National Hydropower Corporation Limited 3) Mazagaon Dock Limited 4) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 5) Engineers India Limited 2. Which of the following organizations released World Investment Report 2014 recently? 1) WTO 2) UNCTAD 3) WEF 4) World Bank 5) IMF 3. According to the World Investment Report 2014, which country has retained its top position as the world's most attractive investment destination? 1) China 2) USA 3) Indonesia 4) India 5) Saudi Arabia 4. Who has been confirmed as the first Chairman of the Intern-ational Cricket Council (ICC) on 2014 June 26? 1) Najam Sethi 2) Giles Clarke 3) Alan Isaac 4) N. Srinivasan 5) David Morgan 5. Which Bollywood actor will be honored with the 'Legion of France', one of the highest civilian awards of France? 1) Salman Khan 2) Hrithik Roshan 3) Aamir Khan 4) Akshay Kumar 5) Shah Rukh Khan 6. FIFA banned Luis Saurez for nine international matches after he was seen biting Italy's Giorgio Chiellini in a World Cup match in June 2014. Luis Saurez is a football player from? 1) Switzerland 2) Honduras 3) Uruguay 4) Mexico 5) Argentina 7. Identify the mismatched pair? 1) Arvind Mayaram - Finance Secretary 2) Shaktikanta Das - Revenue Secretary 3) R.P. Wattal - Expenditure Secretary 4) Ravi Mathur - Disinvestment Secretary 5) G.S. Sandhu - Economic Affairs Secretary 8. Who was named as the winner of the 2014 PEN Pinter Prize on 2014 June 20? (This literary prize will be awarded on 2014 October 9) 1) Jhumpa Lahiri 2) Arundhati Roy 3) Jeet Thayil 4) Salman Rushdie 5) Rahul Bhattacharya 9. The Expert Committee to Revise and Strengthen the Monetary Po-licy Framework was headed by? 1) Anand Sinha 2) Urjit Patel 3) T.M. Bhasin 4) H.R. Khan 5) Bimal Jalan 10. Nachiket Mor committee suggested setting up of specialized banks to cater to low-income households to ensure that all citizens above the age of 18 years have bank accounts by? 1) 2015 January 1 2) 2016 January 1 3) 2015 April 1 4) 2016 April 1 5) 2015 August 15 11. Which of the following signed an agreement with the Export Impo-rt Bank of Korea for infrastructure finance in January 2014? 1) IIFCL 2) IFCI 3) IDFC 4) NABARD 5) SIDBI 12. The 800 MW Tawang hydroelectric project is coming up in? 1) Sikkim 2) Meghalaya 3) Assam 4) Tripura 5) Arunachal Pradesh 13. The Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram is a health program for? 1) Infants 2) Old people 3) Adolescents 4) Women 5) Children below 10 years 14. Which of the following became the first insurer in India to launch an all-women branch in Pune in January 2014? 1) ICICI Lombard 2) Future Generali 3) Tata AIG General 4) Bajaj Allianz 5) Aegon Religare 15. Who won the Chennai Open tennis tournament in January 2014? 1) Johan Brunstrom 2) Mate Pavic 3) Frederik Nielsen 4) Edouard Roger Vaselin 5) Stanislas Wawrinka 16. Which country won their first Hopman Cup tennis title in Perth, Australia on January 4, 2014? 1) France 2) Poland 3) Australia 4) USA 5) Switzerland 17. Which of the following is an annual world mixed team tennis championships? 1) Davis cup 2) Fed cup 3) Hopman cup 4) Wimbledon 5) None of these 18. Who won the women's singles title in the Syed Modi Interna-tional India Grand Prix Gold Badminton Championship in Lucknow on 2014 January 26? 1) Saina Nehwal 2) P.V. Sindhu 3) Jia Yi Fan 4) Chen Qingchen 5) Juliane Schenk 19. Which country won the Hockey World League final in New Delhi in January 2014? 1) Netherlands 2) New Zealand 3) England 4) Australia 5) Belgium 20. Nikhat Zareen of India won a gold medal in an international tournament in which of the following sports in January 2014? 1) Chess 2) Table Tennis 3) Tennis 4) Boxing 5) Archery 21. India won the 2014 Under-19 Asia Cup Cricket in January 2014. Who is the captain of the winning team? 1) Ankush Bains 2) Akhil Herwadkar 3) Sanju Samson 4) Chama Milind 5) Vijay Zol 22. Sanil Shetty and Ankita Das are the national champions in? 1) Squash 2) Chess 3) Golf 4) Table Tennis 5) Archery 23. Which of the following credit rating agencies has launched a financial inclusion index? 1) ICRA 2) CIBIL 3) CRISIL 4) CARE 5) Fitch 24. As per the Reserve Bank of India new norms, now non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) can give a loan up to what per cent of the gold value against the previous limit of 60 per cent? 1) 65% 2) 70% 3) 80% 4) 75% 5) 100% 25. Which of the following private banks became the first to open a branch in China in January 2014? 1) ICICI Bank 2) HDFC Bank 3) Yes Bank 4) Federal Bank 5) Axis Bank 26. Arun Tiwari is the Chairman and Managing Director of? 1) Bank of Baroda 2) Andhra Bank 3) Allahabad Bank 4) Union Bank of India 5) None of these 27. The Lokmanya Tilak National Award for Excellence in Journalism was conferred on which of the following media persons on 2014 January 4? 1) Mammen Mathew 2) Shekar Gupta 3) Prabhu Chawla 4) Prannoy Roy 5) Siddartha Varadarajan 28. The BCIM corridor will run from Kunming in China to which of the following Indian cities? 1) Agartala 2) Shillong 3) Kolkata 4) Itanagar 5) Dispur 29. National Education Day is celebrated on? 1) November 9 2) November 11 3) November 17 4) November 19 5) November 13 30. Who took over as the Chief Executive Officer of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) in January 2014? 1) Dilip Modi 2) Rajendra Pawar 3) Rakesh Kumar 4) C.N. Nataraj 5) None of these 31. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) has set up a committee to look into having 100% foreign direct investment (FDI) in insurance intermediaries and Third Party Administrators (TPAs). The committee is headed by? 1) Suresh Mathur 2) Rakesh Bajaj 3) Nimisha Srivastava 4) Mukesh Sharma 5) T.S. Naik 32. Who won the 12th Parsvanath Grand Masters International Chess tournament in New Delhi on January 16, 2014? 1) Abhijit Gupta 2) Deepan Chakravarthy 3) Surya Shekhar Ganguly 4) P. Harikrishna 5) Sahaj Grover 33. Mehdi Jomaa assumed office as the Prime Minister of which of the following countries on January 29, 2014? 1) South Africa 2) Libya 3) Tunisia 4) Ethiopia 5) Niger 34. The World Health Organization has declared Peshawar as the world's largest reservoir of Polio. Peshawar is in? 1) Bangladesh 2) Afghanistan 3) Iran 4) Pakistan 5) Nigeria 35. The United Nations Organization and its partners have launched 'No Lost Generation' initiative to save the children of? 1) Libya 2) Yemen 3) Jordan 4) Lebanon 5) Syria 36. Park Geun-hye visited India in January 2014. She is the President of? 1) Vietnam 2) North Korea 3) South Korea 4) Philippines 5) Cambodia 37. The foundation stone of 2,800 MW nuclear power plant has been laid at Gorakhpur village in Fatehabad district of? 1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Haryana 3) Uttarakhand 4) Himachal Pradesh 5) Jharkhand KEY 1) 5 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4 5) 5 6) 3 7) 5 8) 4 9) 2 10) 2 11) 1 12) 5 13) 3 14) 4 15) 5 16) 1 17) 3 18) 1 19) 1 20) 4 21) 5 22) 4 23) 3 24) 4 25) 5 26) 4 27) 1 28) 3 29) 2 30) 3 31) 1 32) 1 33) 3 34) 4 35) 5 36) 3 37) 2 -
భారతదేశం యొక్క రెండవ అత్యంత ముఖ్యమైన పంట?
Banks Special 1. Banks facilitate payment services at merchant establishment through which of the following? a) ATM's b) Branches c) Debit cards d) Credit cards e) c & d 2. More numbers of conversions indicates? a) Conversion or large number of leads into business b) More purchases c) More staff d) More products e) None of these 3. The course of a product's sale and profit over its lifetime is called? a) The sales chart b) The dynamic growth curve c) The adoption cycle d) The product life cycle e) None of these 4. Name environmental factor that can affect the pricing decisions of enterprise? a) Competitions b) Economic climate c) Government control d) All of the above e) None of these 5. Which of the following is not correct with regard to marketing? a) Marketing is a management function b) Marketing is a philosophy c) Marketing is not limited to business activity alone d) Marketing means selling e) None of these 6. Which of the following is not included in the brand of product? a) Name b) Design c) Sign d) Symbol e) None of these 7. Digital marketing is similar to? a) Online market b) Cold calling c) Web designing d) Outdoor marketing e) None of these 8. Which internal factor can affect the pricing decision enterprise? a) Company's objective b) Company's brand image c) Nature d) Marketing channels e) All of the above 9. Which of the following statement is not a part of definition of marketing? a) It is a process of determining consumer demand for goods and services b) It is a process of determining consumer demand for goods and services c) It is a process of selling the goods and services that a firm produces d) It is a process of satisfying consumer e) None of these 10. Which of the following is one of the examples of narrow concept? a) Soap b) Fan c) Table d) Chair e) All of the above 11. Which crop is treated as the second most important agricultural crop of India? a) Wheat b) Rice c) Maize d) Pulses e) Mango 12. Focus of a marketing exercise is: a) Consumer and consumer requirements b) Market demand c) Goods and services d) Sale of products e) All of the above 13. Which of the following is not a part of the marketing management? a) Identification of business opportunities b) Understanding the customer needs c) Producing according to customer needs d) Delivering as the customer convenience e) All of the above 14. Who said that "Stock Ex-change is an association of brokers"? a) L.H. Haney b) Prof. Pankaj c) Prof. Philip d) Vinoba Bhave e) Prof. B.D.Sharma 15. Which of the following a function of the marketing management? a) Collection and analysis of customer and competitor information b) Planning and resource mobilisation c) Implementation of the strategic plans d) All of the above e) None of these 16. Which of the following is influences the pricing of a product or service? a) Profit b) Growth c) Sustainability d) All of the above e) a and b 17. A firm has fixed its price at Rs.1999 rather than Rs. 2000, for its product. Such pricing strategy is called? a) Psychological pricing b) Discrimination pricing c) Promotional pricing d) Value pricing e) Product-mix pricing 18. What is the main merit of Ex-pert Opinion Method? a) Easy b) Simple c) Time Saving d) Economical e) All of the above 19. Which of the following is an area where we find non-price competition? a) Branding of services b) Packaging of products c) Advertisement of products d) All of the above e) None of these 20. Which of the following results from vertical integration by sellers or buyers? a) Brokers b) Merchant wholesalers c) Manufacturers' sales branches and offices d) Rack jobbers e) None of these 21. What is the method used in demand forecasting of a new product? a) Substitute approach b) Evolutionary approach c) Buyer's employment d) Opinion of Experts e) None of these 22. What is the cause of high marketing cost? a) Advertisement changes b) Packing expence c) Trade mark charges d) Transportation cost e) All of the above 23. 3 main inputs (3 Cs) are taken into account while fixing price. Which of the following is not part of 3 Cs? a) Customer's demand schedule b) Cost function c) Competitor's price d) Carrying cost of customer e) None of these 24. What is meant by search goods and products? a) Which are Tangible b) Which can be Packaged c) Which can be touched d) Which can be seen e) All of the above 25. Which of the following is the fir-st stage of product development? a) Idea screening b) Concept testing c) Product development d) Test marketing e) Commercial launch 26. A producer who wants to carry his own marketing research, he faces the problem of? a) Qualified people b) Trained researchers c) Infrastructure d) Government obligations e) Any or all of the above 27. A set of marketing tools that a business organization uses to market its product effectively is called? a) Marketing mix b) Marketing of products c) Marketing tools d) Marketing strategies e) All of the above 28. In 4P model for marketing, the places relates to which aspects? a) Distribution b) Production c) Transportation d) All of the above e) None of these 29. Which of the following banking product can be said to have nearly reached its maturity stage? a) Saving bank account b) Cash certificate c) Term loans d) Bank Drafts e) None of the above 30. Which of the following additional tools are included in the marketing mix for services? a) People b) Physical evidence c) Process d) All of the above e) None of these 31. If "Tide" (detergent) is available in three pack sizes and two types of packages, what is the product depth? a) Two b) Three c) Six d) Eight e) None 32. A sound marketing programme can not produce desired results, if it is not ___ a) Existed b) Assisted by elder person c) Implemented properly d) Planned properly e) All of the above 33. Which of the following is included under 4C corresponding to 4P for products mix? a) Customer needs and wants b) Cost to the customer c) Convenience d) Communication e) All of the above 34. Services offered by the banks fall under which category of goods? a) Tangible b) Those can be touched c) Intangible d) All of the above e) None of these 35. Which of the following is the first aspect of any business? a) Determination of marketing objectives b) Elimination of objective c) Formation of plan d) Execution of plan e) All of the above 36. Which of the following is not the level of the product under the customer value hierarchy? a) Core benefit b) Expected product c) Augmented product d) Potential product e) None of these 37. Which of the following is not an element of MIS (Marketing Information System)? a) Marketing Research b) Decision Support System c) Production Monitoring System d) All of the above e) None of the above 38. Price determination depends on: a) Market demand for the product/service b) Perceived value of the product/service c) Buyer Psychology d) Government Policy e) Any of the above 39. A seller offering to the buyers, a range of products, is called? a) Product Mix b) Product lines c) Product item d) Potential product e) None of these 40. A person who acts on behalf of some other person to sell a product/service is known as ____ a) Principal b) Dinar c) Labour d) Agent e) Middleman 41. Which of the following can be called as discriminatory pricing? a) Sanction of Housing Loan to all customers at same rate of interest b) Sanction of Mortgage loan depending on the Annual Income c) Allowing half percent concession to girl students while sanctioning Education Loan d) Allowing half percent more interest in deposits to Senior Citizens e) c & d 42. ________ is the general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means. a) Internet commerce b) Web commerce c) Computer commerce d) Electronic commerce e) None of these 43. When producers, wholesalers and retailers are in a unified system, they comprise a __ a) Conventional marketing system b) Power-based marketing system c) Horizontal marketing system d) Vertical marketing system e) None of these 44. The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market is called? a) Undifferentiated marketing b) Differentiated marketing c) Concentrated marketing d) Turbo marketing e) None of these 45. _______ has the advantage of being high in selectivity, low cost, immediacy and interactive capabilities? a) Direct mail b) Outdoor c) Online d) Radio e) None of these KEY 1) e 2) a 3) d 4) e 5) d 6) e 7) a 8) e 9) c 10) e 11) b 12) a 13) e 14) a 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) e 19) d 20) c 21) e 22) e 23) d 24) e 25) a 26) e 27) a 28) a 29) d 30) d 31) c 32) c 33) e 34) c 35) a 36) e 37) e 38) e 39) a 40) d 41) e 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) c -
2013 జ్ఞానపీఠ్ అవార్డు విజేత?
Banks Special 1. The Okavango Delta became the 1000th UNESCO World Herit-age Site in June 2014. It is in? 1) Namibia 2) Zimbabwe 3) Mali 4) Botswana 5) South Africa 2. Gro Harlem Brundtland was awarded with the first Tang Prize in Sustainable Development in June 2014. She is the former Prime Minister of? 1) Denmark 2) Norway 3) Finland 4) Netherlands 5) Austria 3. The Tang Prize is awarded on a biennial basis in four categories. Which of the following is not one of them? 1) Sustainable Development 2) Biopharmaceutical Science 3) Sinology 4) Rule of Law 5) Literature 4. Which Hindi poet was chosen for the prestigious Jnanpith Award for 2013 on June 20, 2014? 1) Sumitranandan Pant 2) Ramdhari Singh Dinakar 3) Naresh Mehta 4) Kedarnath Singh 5) None of these 5. Which India born Mexican plant scientist won the 2014 World Food Prize for his outstanding work in the improvement of wheat crop? 1) H.S. Gupta 2) Sanjay Rajaram 3) Anil Rai 4) Dinesh Kumar 5) S. Ayyappan 6. The World Food Prize was established in 1986 by? 1) M.S. Swaminathan 2) Food and Agriculture Organization 3) William Gaud 4) Norman Borlaug 5) International Rice Research Institute 7. The Tang Prize was established by Samuel Yin, a billionaire from? 1) USA 2) China 3) Taiwan 4) Russia 5) Japan 8. Which country will host the 41st G7/G8 Summit in 2015? 1) France 2) Italy 3) Germany 4) UK 5) Japan 9. Who has been appointed as Governor, State Bank of Pakistan with effect from April 29, 2014? (He succeeded Yaseen Anwar) 1) Ishrat Husain 2) Syed Salim Raza 3) Shahid Hafiz Kardar 4) Ashraf Mahmood Wathra 5) None of these 10. The International Maize and Wheat Improvement Center (CIMMYT) is located in? 1) Mexico 2) USA 3) India 4) Philippines 5) Canada 11. Who resigned as the President of the Central African Republic on 2014 January 10 ? 1) Nicolas Tiangaye 2) Francois Bozize 3) Michel Djotodia 4) Abakar Sabon 5) None of these 12. Which is the first country where Wimbledon has run 'The Road to Wimbledon' tennis event outside the United Kingdom? 1) USA 2) Serbia 3) Russia 4) India 5) Switzerland 13. World Music Day is celebrated every year on? 1) June 20 2) June 21 3) June 24 4) June 25 5) June 27 14. Which of the following books is written by Romila Thapar? 1) The Reason for God-Belief in an Age of Scepticism 2) The Sceptical Patriot 3) Physics of the Future- The Inventions That Will Transform Our Lives 4) The Past as Present-Forging Contemporary Identities through History 5) None of these 15. Catherine Samba-Panza assumed office as the interim President of which of the following African countries on January 23, 2014? (She is the first woman to hold the post) 1) Niger 2) Chad 3) Mali 4) Namibia 5) Central African Republic 16. C.Radhakrishnan was selected for the Moortidevi Award for 2013 on June 13, 2014. He is an eminent writer in which of the following languages? 1) Tamil 2) Kannada 3) Hindi 4) Telugu 5) Malayalam 17. Who assumed office as the President of Madagascar on 2014 January 25? 1) Omer Beriziky Roger Kolo 2) Hery Rajaonarimampianina 3) Andry Rajoelina 4) Jean-Louis Robinson 5) Marc Ravalomanana 18. Which country's head of State has the largest name? (His full name has 44 characters) 1) Madagascar 2) Bhutan 3) Argentina 4) Indonesia 5) Mali 19. Who won the prestigious DSC Prize for South Asian Literature for 2014 for his book 'Chronicles of a Corpse Bearer'? 1) Jeet Thayil 2) Cyrus Mistry 3) Amitav Ghosh 4) Shehan Karunatilaka 5) None of these 20. Cristiano Ronaldo is a renowned footballer from? 1) Brazil 2) Argentina 3) Portugal 4) Spain 5) Netherlands 21. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to 2014 Padma Awards? 1) 127 Padma Awards were giv-en which include Padma Vib-hushan for two individuals, Padma Bhushan for 24 and Padma Shri for 101 people 2) Out of 127 awardees 27 were women 3) 10 people belonged to categories like NRIs, PIOs, Foreigners and posthumous 4) Raghunath Mashelkar (Scientist) and B.K.S. Iyengar (Yoga Guru) are the Padma Vibhushan awardees 5) Film actors Paresh Rawal and Vidya Balan were given Padma Bhushan awards 22. Two sportspersons were given Padma Bhushan awards. One is Pullela Gopichand and the other is? 1) Anjum Chopra 2) Sunil Dabas 3) Dipika Pallikal 4) Leander Paes 5) Yuvraj Singh 23. Who, among the following Padma Bhushan awardees, is an author? 1) K. Radhakrishnan 2) Begum Parveen Sultana 3) T.H. Vinayakram 4) Anita Desai 5) Vijayendra Nath Kaul 24. Justice Dalveer Bhandari is one of the 24 Padma Bhushan awardees this year. He is? 1) The Chief Justice of Bombay High Court 2) The Chairman of National Human Rights Commission 3) Member, International Court of Justice 4) The Chairman, National Green Tribunal 5) None of these 25. Yu Si was conferred the Tamil Nadu government's Thiruvallu-var award in January 2014. Yu Si is a poet from? 1) Taiwan 2) Thailand 3) South Korea 4) Laos 5) Vietnam 26. Lisa Maria Singh is one of the winners of the 2014 Pravasi Bharatiya Samman. She is a politician from? 1) Canada 2) Fiji 3) UK 4) Australia 5) USA 27. The 12th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD), the annual convention of Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) was held in which of the following cities from 2014 January 7 to 9 ? 1) Kochi 2) Jaipur 3) New Delhi 4) Mumbai 5) Kolkata 28. The theme of the 12th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas in 2014 is Engaging Diaspora? 1) The Indian Growth Story 2) The Emotional Connect 3) India's Growth and Development 4) Connecting Across Generations 5) None of these 29. Justice Ashok Kumar Ganguly resigned as the Chairman of which of the following States Human Rights Commission in January 2014? 1) Assam 2) Haryana 3) Odisha 4) Meghalaya 5) West Bengal 30. Aditya Joshi is the first male junior player from India to be ranked world number one in which of the following sports? 1) Squash 2) Badminton 3) Tennis 4) Golf 5) Snooker 31. Against which team did Corey Anderson of New Zealand score the fastest one day international century? 1) Pakistan 2) India 3) Australia 4) Bangladesh 5) West Indies Key 1) 4 2) 2 3) 5 4) 4 5) 2 6) 4 7) 3 8) 3 9) 4 10) 1 11) 3 12) 4 13) 2 14) 4 15) 5 16) 5 17) 2 18) 1 19) 2 20) 3 21) 5 22) 4 23) 4 24) 3 25) 1 26) 4 27) 3 28) 4 29) 5 30) 2 31) 5 -
Who among the following is a Lawyer ?
Banks Special Reasoning Model Questions Directions(Q. 1-5): Study the follo-wing information carefully and ans-wer the questions given below it. In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as' ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi' 1. What is the code for 'he'? 1) la 2) pa 3) ro 4) ta 5) Either la or zo 2. What does 'la' stands for? 1) is 2) train 3) waiting 4) the 5) there 3. Which of the following represent 'the train station'? 1) zo la na 2) fu ji ta 3) fu ji zo 4) ro zo fu 5) Can't be determined 4. What is the code for 'at'? 1) ma 2) ji 3) fu 4) ta 5) Can't be determined 5. Which of the following may represent 'guard is waiting'? 1) ro ta zo 2) ta ki ro 3) fu zo ki 4) ta ro ji 5) lo ma ra Direction (Q.6-10): In each que-stion below are two statements followed by two conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given two statements disregarding commonly known facts. 6. Statements: All matches are cups Some fields are not viewers All viewers are fans Some matches are not fans Conclusions: I. some cups which are fans are not viewers II. some matches which are not viewers are cups. III. some fields which are fans ar e not matches 1) I and III follows 2) Only II follows 3) II and III follows 4) Only III follows 5) None (Q.7-9) 7. Statements: All boys are intelligent Very few girls are intelligent None of girl is leader Some professors are leaders as well as boys. Conclusions: I. 36% of girls are intelligent II. 2% girls are intelligent III. Some boys can never be a girl 1) Only II follows 2) Only III follows 3) Both I and II follow 4) None follows 5) All follow 8. Conclusions: I. All leaders are professors II. There is a possibility that every girl can be professor III. All professors can be leaders 1) None follows 2) Only II follows 3) Both II and III follow 4) Only III follows 5) None of these 9. Conclusions: I. Al least some professors are girls II. No professor is intelligent III. 5% professors are leaders 1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only III follows 4) Both II and III follow 5) None of these 10. Statements: Some reds are crows All crows are yellows All yellows are rabbits Conclusions: I. All crows are rabbits II. Some yellows are reds III. Some reds are rabbits 1) All follow 2) Only I follows 3) I and II follows 4) Either I or II follows 5) None Directions (Q.11-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. A group of friends having seven members, A, B, C, D, E, F and G contains four men and three women. Each one of them has a different profession, stock broker, lawyer, do-ctor, professor, engineer, busine-ssman and banker and each one has passed out of a different colleges P, S, V, W, X, Y and Z not necessarily in the same order. None of the women is a businessman or a stock broker. C is a doctor and she has passed out from 'College X'. A is 'College Y' pass out. B is not a professor E is banker and 'College S' passed out. F is a stock broker and has not studied in 'College P'. G is a businessman and has studied in 'College Y'. The professor is 'College Z' passed out. The lawyer has studied in 'College P'. None of the ladies has studied in 'College R' or 'College S'. 11. Which of the following combi-nation is correct? 1) B - Doctor - female 2) C - W- male 3) A - Businessman - Y 4) D - Professor - male 5) None of the above 12. Which of the following groups represents ladies in the group of friends ? 1) A, B, C 2) E, F, G 3) B, C, D 4) B, E, G 5) None of these 13. Who among the following is a Lawyer ? 1) A 2) B 3) E 4) G 5) None of these 14. What is the profession of D? 1) Doctor 2) Stock broker 3) Engineer 4) Professor 5) None of these 15. From which of the following colleges has the stock broker? 1) W 2) Y 3) S 4) X 5) None of these Direction (Q.16-20): Read the follo-wing passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Eight people E, F, G, H, J, K, L and M are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is of a different profession Charted Accountant, Columnist, Doctor, En-gineer, Financial Analyst, Lawyer, Professor and Scientist but not necessarily in the same order. F is sitting second to the left of K. The Scientist is immediate neighbor of K. There are only three people between the Scientist and E. The Columnist is to immediate right of the Engineer. M is second to the right of K. H is the Scientist G and J are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither G nor J is an Engineer. The Financial Analyst is immediate left of F. The Lawyer is second to the right of the Columnist. The Professor is an immediate neighbor of the Engineer G is second to the right of the Charted Accountant. 16. Who is sitting second to the right of E? 1) The lawyer 2) G 3) The Engineer 4) F 5) K 17. Who amongst the following is the professor? 1) F 2) L 3) M 4) K 5) J 18. Four of the following five one alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group? 1) Chartered Accountant - J 2) M-doctor 3) J - Engineer 4) Financial Analyst -L 5) Lawyer - K 19. What is the profession of L with respect to the Scientist? 1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right 3) Second to the left 4) Third to the right 5) Immediate right 20. Which of the following state-ments is true according to the given statements? 1) The Lawyer is second to the left of the Doctor 2) E is an immediate neighbour of Financial Analyst 3) H sits exactly between F and Financial Analyst 4) Only four people sits between Columnist and F 5) All are true Direction (Q.21-25): Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions. 21. Which of the following ex-pressions will be true, if the expression R > O = A > S < T is definitely true? 1) O > T 2) S < R 3) T > A 4) S = O 5) T < R 22. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression 'P > A' as well as 'T < L' definitely true? 1) £ 2) > 3) < 4) ³ 5) Either (1) or (2) 23. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that make the expression B > N as well as D £ L definitely true? B _ L _ O _ N _ D 1) =, =, ³ , ³ 2) >, ³, =, > 3) >, <, =, £ 4) ³, =, =, ³ 5) >, =, ³, < 24. Which of the following should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression A < P definitely false? _ £ _ < _ > _ 1) L, N, P, A 2) L, A, P, N 3) A, L, P, N 4) N, A, P, L 5) P, N, A, L 25. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression 'F > N' and U > D' definitely false? F _ O _ U _ N _ D 1) <, <, >, = 2) <, =, =, > 3) <, =, =, < 4) ³, =, =, > 5) >, >, =, < Directions (Q.26&27): In each ques-tion below is given statement follo-wed by two conclusions numbered I and II You have to assume every-thing in the statement to be true then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reason-able doubt from the information given in the statement . Give answer (1) If only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) If only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) If either I or II follows. Give answer (4) If neither I nor II follows, and Give answer (5) If both I and II follow. 26. Statement: The cabinet of State 'X' took certain steps to tackle the milk glut in the state as the co-operatives and Government dai-ries failed to use the available milk As news report Conclusions: I. The milk production of State 'X' is more than its need. II. The Government and co-op-erative dairies in State 'X' are not equipped in terms of re-sources and technology to handle such excess milk. 27. Statement: It has been decided by the Government to withdraw 33% of the subsidy on cooking gas from Die beginning of next month-A spokesman of the Go-vernment. Conclusions: I. People now no more desire of need such subsidy from Go-vernment as they can afford increased price of the cooking gas. II. The price of the cooking gas will increase at least by 33% from the next month. KEY 1) 2 2) 5 3) 3 4) 1 5) 2 6) 2 7) 3 8) 3 9) 3 10) 1 11) 5 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 1 16) 2 17) 4 18) 3 19) 2 20) 1 21) 2 22) 2 23) 4 24) 5 25) 3 26) 5 27) 4 -
జనరల్ ఇంగ్లీష్ మోడల్ ప్రశ్నలు
General English Model Questions Directions (Q.1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. The crouching position which the restricted space of his hiding had forced him to assume and the pain he still felt in the ankle made it seem like hours that his pursuers searched in area where he lay concealed, although it was probably not more than a matter of minutes. He dared not move; nor dared he give way to his overwhelming desire to sneeze for fear or revealing his presence. When eventually the voices became fainter in the distance, he allowed himself to shift his position and finally, when he could hear no more, to crawl, half-paralyzed, from between the two rocks in whose shelter he had managed to escape capture. Cautiously he peeped out to see if it was safe for him to continue his escape, and discovering no sign of life about him, started to creep painfully in the direction he had come, hoping in this way to deceive his pursuers. He had not gone above a hundred yards when a movement in the undergrowth nearby made him stand stock still. Could it be that after all some of his enemies were still searching the neighborhood? A few seconds passed and then, from behind a stump of a tree, there app-eared a small black and white dog. Man and dog eyed each other suspiciously for a moment, until, to the man's immense relief, it rushed up to him wagging its tail. 1. The writer crouched as 1) he did not want to take any risk of being caught 2) he had pain in his ankle 3) he was mortally scared 4) there was not much space 5) he had seen a dog 2. 'When eventually the voices became fainter in the distance' means 1) it was relatively quiet now 2) lot of people walked 3) people talking in the distance fainted 4) there was no sign of any activity nearby 5) though there was some noise nearby, things were quiet in the distance 3. The writer decided to come out of his hiding place when 1) he was completely paralyzed 2) he could hear no more the vo-ices of his pursuers 3) he was no longer able to con-trol himself 4) he found a dog nearby 5) he was not able to see the pursuers 4. When the writer moved some distance the doubt that he got is 1) he was caught 2) no one is there 3) he was safe 4) there were many voices 5) some enemies were still sea-rching for him 5. When did the writer try to move? 1) When there was no space 2) When he was almost para-lyzed 3) When he felt that all the followers have left 4) When there was a lot of noise 5) When nobody saw him 6. It came as a solace to the writer when 1) he was panicked 2) he moved 3) he heard some noise 4) he could see a dog 5) he could see the pursuers Directions (Q.7 - 8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 7. Restrict 1) Move 2) Front 3) Confine 4) Register 5) Rescue 8. Immense 1) Scarce 2) Vast 3) Scanty 4) Spurious 5) Specious Directions (Q.09-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 9. Cautiously 1) Carelessly 2) Insignificantly 3) Vigilantly 4) Warily 5) Guardedly 10. Revealing 1) Enlightening 2) Informative 3) Confusing 4) Illuminating 5) Enticing Directions (Q.11-15): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/ error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of that part with error as your answer. If there is 'No error', mark (e) as your answer. 11. Everyone visiting the house (1)/ asked the young girl (2)/ how could she kill the wolf (3)/ single handed and without a weapon. (4)/ No error (5) 12. Since the attachment of (1)/ air-conditioned sleeping cars to all important trains (2)/ travelling became very pleasant (3)/ es-pecially during the summer season. (4) /No error (5) 13. A leading textile manufactured, (1) / one of the fastest growing in the industry (2)/ is looking for marketing manager (3)/ to look up the marketing network of the company. (4)/ No error (5) 14. There was very heavy rain last night (1)/ and the rivers have over flown (2)/ their banks causing severe hardship (3)/ to the people living by them.(4)/ No error (5) 15. Locke's treatises on government, (1)/ toleration and education (2)/ show a mind fully awake in (3)/ the possibilities of social reconstruction. (4)/ No error (5) Directions (Q.16-20): Each ques-tion below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words from the five options for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 16. The _____ of the disturbance was _____ the same evening. 1) news, broadcasted 2) news, broadcasting 3) new's, broadcast 4) news, broadcast 5) news', broadcasted 17. The young child _____ a very _____ song. 1) singed, cute 2) singing, sweet 3) signing, beautiful 4) singed, sweet 5) sang, sweet 18. His reading habit _____ that he is a _____. 1) show, researcher 2) showing, talent 3) showed, scholar 4) shows, scholar 5) show, talent 19. The leader's ____ attracted many _____. 1) charisma, followers 2) beauty, spectators 3) visiting, visitors 4) beauty, audience 5) interview, meeting 20. _____ 25 students were washed _____ in the floods. 1) Most, with 2) Mostly, above 3) Almost, away 4) Among, away 5) More, along Directions (Q.21-25): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below. A. And what is intolerable is their utter disregard for the periodicity of the journal's publication. B. People in the printing esta-blishment are capable of sending the editor mad in a hundred ways. C. There is nothing that the editor can do if the January issue handed over to him even in March or April. D. Anyway their consistency on one point is admirable; they make the editor pay up the full bill despite all these lapses. E. Their binding work may be slipshod. F. They may be utterly non-chalant in handling proofs. 21. The FIRST sentence should be 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) F 22. The FOURTH sentence should be 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) E 23. The LAST sentence should be 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) E 5) D 24. The SECOND sentence should be 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) A 25. The THIRD sentence should be 1) F 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) B Directions (Q. 26-35): In the follo-wing passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appro-priately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case and mark your answer. The Narmada Control Authority has given a nod for_____ (26) of gates at the Sardar Sarovar dam in Gujarat. The decision, touted to come as a boon to Gujarat, which regularly _____ (27) water crisis because of deficient or _____(28) rainfall, was _____(29) criticized by Narmada Bachao Andolan, _____ (30) by social activist Medha Patkar. According to Narmada Bachao Andolan activists this will _____(31) 193 villages in Madhya Pradesh and 19 in Gujarat. The Narmada Bachao Andolan activists who have been vocally _____ (32) the increase of water level _____(33) Narmada are crying foul and strategizing their next move. Greenpeace India _____ (34) slammed the announcement, saying it disregards the issues that peoples' movements like the Narmada Bachao Andolan have been _____ (35) for. 26. 1) installation 2) instill 3) instant 4) interest 5) information 27. 1) faced 2) faces 3) face 4) facing 5) farce 28. 1) more 2) plenty 3) sparse 4) heavy 5) mighty 29. 1) against 2) bitterly 3) refused 4) registered 5) sweetly 30. 1) lead 2) leads 3) led 4) leading 5) lied 31. 1) water 2) help 3) important 4) submerge 5) worse 32. 1) prosper 2) proceed 3) propagate 4) promote 5) protesting 33. 1) in 2) of 3) by 4) with 5) for 34. 1) to 2) two 3) tow 4) too 5) for 35. 1) fighting 2) fight 3) fighter 4) fights 5) fitting Directions (Q.36-37): In this section each item consists of a word or a phrase which is highlighted in the sentence given. It is followed by five words or phrases. Select the word or phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the highlighted word or phrase. 36. I was upset by his hostile att-itude. 1) Friendly 2) Positive 3) Negative 4) Inimical 5) Vibrant 37. I found his view repugnant. 1) Amiable 2) Repulsive 3) Amoral 4) Apolitical 5) Foul Directions (Q.38-40): In this se-ction each item consists of a word or a phrase which is highlighted in the sentence given. It is followed by five words or phrases. Select the word or phrase which is closest to the meaning of the highlighted word or phrase. 38. Ashoka was a magnanimous king. 1) Worthy 2) Petty 3) Kind 4) Majestic 5) Mean 39. Mala is defiant in her behavior. 1) Disobedient 2) Faithful 3) Friendly 4) Majestic 5) Meek 40. People who are actually running the system often take myopic view of the situation. 1) Far sighted 2) Visionary 3) Prejudiced 4) Glassy 5) Tolerant Directions: (Q.41 to 42): In each question below, five words printed in bold are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappr-opriate in the context of the sen-tence. Find out the word that is in-appropriate or wrongly spelt if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appro-priate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e. 'All Correct as your answer.' 41. Much (1) people suffer (2) set-backs in their career because (3) of their inherent levity. (4) All Correct (5) 42. There were(1) something strange and (2) morbid about (3) the whole (4) house. All Correct (5) KEY 1) 4 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5 5) 3 6) 4 7) 3 8) 2 9) 1 10) 3 11) 3 12) 1 13) 1 14) 2 15) 3 16) 4 17) 5 18) 4 19) 1 20) 3 21) 2 22) 3 23) 5 24) 4 25) 3 26) 1 27) 2 28) 3 29) 2 30) 3 31) 4 32) 5 33) 2 34) 4 35) 1 36) 1 37) 1 38) 1 39) 1 40) 3 41) 1 42) 1 -
2014 Men's Hockey World Cup Winner?
Banks Special 1. Zeid al-Hussein will take over as the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights on September 1, 2014 replacing Navi Pillay of South Africa. Zeid al-Hussein is the Prince of? 1) Yemen 2) Turkey 3) Jordan 4) Saudi Arabia 5) UAE 2. The Tax Administration Reform Commission (TARC) submitted its report to the Union Ministry of Finance on June15, 2014. TARC is headed by? 1) Raghuram Rajan 2) Parthasarathy Shome 3) C. Rangarajan 4) R. Damodaran 5) U.K. Sinha 3. Defending champions crashed out of the FIFA World Cup football on June18, 2014 after their second defeat in five days. Name the team? 1) Netherlands 2) Brazil 3) Spain 4) Mexico 5) Uruguay 4. B.L.Joshi resigned as the Governor of which of the following States on June 17, 2014? 1) Karnataka 2) Chhattisgarh 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) Jharkhand 5. World Day to Combat Desertific-ation (WDCD) is observed on? 1) June 15 2) June 20 3) June 17 4) June 5 5) None of these 6. Which of the following cities has become the first 'Kerosene-free city' in India? 1) Mumbai 2) Delhi 3) Kolkata 4) Chennai 5) Bangalore 7. Shaktikanta Das has been appointed as the new? 1) Finance Secretary 2) Financial Services Secretary 3) Revenue Secretary 4) Economic Affairs Secretary 5) Commerce Secretary 8. Which of the following countries retained the men's hockey world cup title by beating the Netherl-ands 6-1 in the final at the Kyocera stadium in The Hague on June 15, 2014? 1) Australia 2) Argentina 3) England 4) India 5) South Korea 9. Which team won the 2014 edition of women's hockey world cup held in The Hague, Netherlands on June14, 2014? 1) Netherlands 2) Australia 3) Argentina 4) USA 5) Belgium 10. Who is the current Governor of the Bank of England, the central bank of the United Kingdom? 1) Mark Carney 2) Sir John Houblon 3) Sir Edward George 4) Sir Mervyn King 5) None of these 11. Which country will host the FIFA U-20 World Cup from May 30 to June 20, 2015? 1) Peru 2) Tunisia 3) Wales 4) France 5) New Zealand 12. Which of the following African countries has won the right to host the 2017 FIFA U-20 World Cup? 1) South Korea 2) Bahrain 3) Kuwait 4) Qatar 5) UAE 13. Who among the following is not a Union Minister of State with independent charge? 1) Piyush Goyal 2) Jitendra Singh 3) Nirmala Sitharaman 4) General V.K. Singh 5) Kalraj Mishra 14. Which of the following States won the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNW TO) Ulysses Award for sustainable tourism in January 2014? 1) Sikkim 2) Jammu & Kashmir 3) Kerala 4) Rajasthan 5) Gujarat 15. The Cabinet Committee on Eco-nomic Affairs (CCEA) accorded approval for foreign equity participation up to 74% of the paid up capital in which of the following banks in January 2014? 1) Yes Bank 2) South Indian Bank 3) Karur Vysya Bank 4) Federal Bank 5) Lakshmi Vilas Bank 16. Who is the present Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC)? 1) Bikram Singh 2) N.A.K. Browne 3) Arup Raha 4) R.K. Dhowan 5) None of these 17. Which of the following public sector banks launched 'Connect Card', a new ATM-cum-Debit Card, targeting young individuals in January 2014? 1) State Bank of Hyderabad 2) Canara Bank 3) Corporation Bank 4) Oriental Bank of Commerce 5) Indian Overseas Bank 18. 'Junbeel Mela' is an annual heritage festival celebrated in? 1) Assam 2) Himachal Pradesh 3) West Bengal 4) Arunachal Pradesh 5) Odisha 19. Nest Labs was acquired by which of the following companies on January 14, 2014? 1) Facebook 2) Google 3) Microsoft 4) Amazon 5) None of these 20. Dhanu Yatra, a drama festival, was celebrated in which of the following States in January 2014? 1) Odisha 2) Karnataka 3) Maharashtra 4) Rajasthan 5) Andhra Pradesh 21. Arrow 3 or Hetz 3 is an anti-ballistic missile, jointly funded and developed by the USA and? 1) Iran 2) China 3) Israel 4) Pakistan 5) France 22. "With Malice towards One and All" was the popular weekly column written by? 1) M.J. Akbar 2) P. Sainath 3) Shekhar Gupta 4) Prabhu Chawla 5) Khushwant Singh 23. Who received the Order of the Rising Sun, Gold and Silver Star by the Government of Japan recently? 1) Amartya Sen 2) E. Sreedharan 3) C. Rangarajan 4) Raghuram Rajan 5) None of these 24. With regard to share market, FPO means? 1) Final Public Offer 2) First Public Offer 3) Follow on Public Offer 4) Forward Public Offer 5) None of these 25. Riots took place in Little India recently. Little India is an area in? 1) Singapore 2) Malaysia 3) Indonesia 4) Philippines 5) Mauritius 26. Which of the following is related to Blue Revolution? 1) Horticulture 2) Floriculture 3) Pisciculture 4) Sericulture 5) None of these 27. The National Judicial Academy is located in? 1) Pune 2) Bhopal 3) Jaipur 4) Patna 5) Hyderabad 28. Which of the following metals is used in spacecraft to withstand high temperatures? 1) Iron 2) Titanium 3) Silver 4) Copper 5) Lead 29. Foreign exchange reserves include? 1) Foreign currency deposits 2) Gold 3) Special Drawing Rights 4) All 1,2 and 3 5) None of these 30. Indian off-spinner R. Ashwin was given which of the following awards recently? 1) Colonel C.K. Nayudu Award 2) Dilip Sardesai Award 3) Polly Umrigar Award 4) ICC Emerging Cricketer of the Year Award 5) None of these 31. Which Indian scientist was awarded the Order of Merit of Russia in December 2013? 1) G. Sateesh Reddy 2) V.K. Saraswat 3) Tessy Thomas 4) Avinash Chander 5) A. Sivthanu Pillai 32. India has signed the $1.01 billion deal with which of the following countries for six additional C-130J Super Hercules aircraft? 1) USA 2) UK 3) France 4) Germany 5) Japan 33. San Miguel or Chaparrastique volcano has erupted recently. It is located in? 1) Indonesia 2) Ecuador 3) El Salvador 4) Mexico 5) Philippines 34. The largest foreign exchange reserves are held by the central bank of which of the following countries? 1) Japan 2) Switzerland 3) Saudi Arabia 4) China 5) Brazil 35. Naira is the currency of which of the following African countries? 1) Mozambique 2) Namibia 3) Rwanda 4) Tanzania 5) Nigeria 36. Which of the following is the capital city of Switzerland? 1) Zurich 2) Geneva 3) Basel 4) Berne 5) Lausanne 37. Identify the mismatched pair? COUNTRY CURRENCY 1) Afghanistan Afghani 2) Chile Peso 3) Israel Shekel 4) Ukraine Hryvnia 5) Mexico Dollar 38. Who was honored with the Itihas Ratna by the Asiatic Society, Bihar in December 2013? 1) Ramchandra Guha 2) Romila Thapar 3) Mridula Mukherjee 4) Bipan Chandra 5) None of these 39. Shakira is a pop singer who belongs to? 1) USA 2) UK 3) Brazil 4) Colombia 5) Mexico 40. Identify the mismatched pair? BOOK AUTHOR 1) A Haunted - Virginia House Woolf 2) Godfather - Mario Puzo 3) Crime and - Fyodor Punishment Dostoyevsky 4) Paradise - John Milton Regained 5) The Waste - Ernest Land Hemingway Key 1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 3 6) 2 7) 3 8) 1 9) 1 10) 1 11) 5 12) 1 13) 5 14) 3 15) 4 16) 1 17) 5 18) 1 19) 2 20) 1 21) 3 22) 5 23) 2 24) 3 25) 1 26) 3 27) 2 28) 2 29) 4 30) 3 31) 5 32) 1 33) 3 34) 4 35) 5 36) 4 37) 5 38) 4 39) 4 40) 5 -
Objects on the slide which holds text?
Banks Special 1. Computer audit involves review of ____ a) Established policies b) Efficiency of operations c) Checking of data integrity d) a, b, c e) None of these 2. Which of the following is not available in Font Spacing? a) Normal b) Loosely c) Condensed d) Expanded e) None of these 3. Dynamic Adhoc Wireless Net-works (DAWN) usually come under? a) 2G b) 3G c) 4G d) 5G e) None of these 4. Which of the following is Not a characteristic of e-mail? a) Low cost b) Record maintenance in data base c) High speed d) Waste reduction e) None of these 5. Which of the following is not an example of hard ware? a) Scanner b) Printer c) Mouse d) Monitor e) Interpreter 6. A magnetic strip is fixed on the back of the cards, which holds information about the customer such as his account number etc also contains his: a) Personal Identification Number b) Address c) Age d) Occupation e) None 7. What is used in most programs that is a part of program and guides the user through certain steps? a) Wizard b) Software c) Wiki d) Hardware e) None of these 8. Which one of the following input device is user-programmable? a) Dumb terminal b) Smart terminal c) VDT d) Intelligent terminal e) None of these 9. The most frequently used instr-uctions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from? a) The hard disk b) Cache memory c) RAM d) Registers e) None 10. In Excel, this is a prerecorded formula that provides a shortcut for complex calculations? a) Value b) Data Series c) Function d) Field e) None of these 11. The secondary storage devices can only store data but they can-not perform? a) Arithmetic Operation b) Logic operation c) Fetch operations d) All of the above e) None of the above 12. The One-time password (OTPs) can be obtained by a customer, via which among the following? a) Approaching the nearest Bank Branch b) e-mail by applying for OTP online c) SMS on Mobile d) All of the above e) None of these 13. The ____ component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database? a) Data extraction b) End User Presentation Tool c) Data store d) End User Query Tool e) None Of These 14. Which of the following is used To access a mainframe or supe-rcomputer? a) PDA b) Terminal c) Modem d) Node e) None of these 15. "Bitmap" is a ? a) Format which windows use for desktop wall paper b) Graphic file format made up of small dots c) Specific kind of bitmap files with the BMP extension d) All of the above e) None of these 16. ADSL stands for ? a) Automatic Digital Subscriber Line b) Asymmetric Direct Sub-scriber Line c) Asymmetric Digital Sub-scriber Line d) Automatic Direct Subscriber Line e) None of these 17. The most common method of signing digitally is with the help of______cryptography, as con-templated by the Information Te-chnology Act 2000: a) Public Key b) Biometrics c) Firewall d) b and c e) None of these 18. Objects on the slide which holds text are called ______ a) Object holders b) Text holders c) Auto layout d) Data holders e) Place holders 19. What is the shortcut key to "Undo" the last action in a docu-ment? a) Ctrl + U b) Ctrl + Y c) Ctrl + X d) Ctrl + Z e) None of these 20. End-to-end connectivity is provi-ded from Host-to-Host in? a) Network layer b) Session layer c) Data link layer d) Transport layer e) None 21. "www" is based on which of the following modes? a) Local Server b) 2-tier c) Client server d) 3- tier e) None of these 22. Which command will be used to duplicate the entire disk? a) Copy b) Undo c) Format d) Disk copy e) None 23. To select the entire column in a worksheet, which of the follow-ing options can be used? a) Shift + Space b) Alt + Space c) Shift + Alt d) Ctrl + Space e) None of these 24. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are? a) Semantic errors b) Logic errors c) System errors d) Syntax errors e) None of these KEY 1) d 2) b 3) d 4) b 5) e 6) a 7) a 8) d 9) b 10) c 11) d 12) c 13) d 14) b 15) d 16) c 17) a 18) e 19) d 20) d 21) c 22) d 23) d 24) d
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